In Lesson 7 of trying to teach the superiority and exclusivity of the KJV (whichever revision is correct), I was dumbfounded by Dr. Holland's condemnation of the "evil" in the NKJV. The very first "proof" was this passage: The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his SON Jesus; . . . (Acts 3:13 KJV) The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified His SERVANT Jesus, . . . (NKJV. Also in Acts 3:26; 4:27; and 4:30) I thought, hey, the NKJV is supposed to be from the same Greek text as the KJV, so why the difference? Looked up the word (paidon, the accusative case of the noun pais). It means a child, boy/girl, servant, slave. And it is translated as such in the KJV! Mt 12:18 in the KJV translates this word as "Servant" referring to Jesus. So the NKJV is "evil" because it translates a Greek word (same word as Greek in KJV) DIFFERENTLY than the KJV did in this case, although the SAME as the KJV did in other instances of the same word. I am scratching my head. The NKJV will use some different English words than the KJV. Duh. But his first example is ludicrous.