The question of whether God or man is the subject of Job 24:22 has arisen twice in this forum and also over in the Baptist Theology & Bible Study forum. After asking this question of a friend from another board who is very well versed in Hebrew, I posted the following in answer to the question in the BT/BS forum this morning: I finally heard back from a guy I know from another board. He is very knowledgeable of Hebrew. His comments are that basically it boils down to the translators' understanding of the context. Quote: So much of Hebrew meaning depends on the context, and so the translation of who the "he" is dependant upon what the translator understands to be the context. Even in the original Hebrew there is no clear indication of whether this passage is speaking of God or of man. My friend's conclusion is this: "I guess we can say that "good translators differ" on how to interpret this." There is no pat answer to your question, Salamander. The KJV translators and translators of early English Bible's left the subject unspecified as "he" probably because of their own uncertainty. Translators of modern versions often include God as the subject, and there is no concrete evidence that they are wrong. Even in the original Hebrew the subject of Job 24:22 is not clear. I don't see this as a major doctrinal issue. This is just one of the things about the Bible (any version) that we will not know for certain in this lifetime. When we get to those pearly gates and enter the New Jerusalem then we will understand everything. Until then there are just some things we will never understand completely and we just have to leave it to the Lord to guide our interpretatin and our understanding. Apparently when one says that God cannot possibly be the subject of v. 22 one is taking a stance for which there is no firm foundation. Taking such a stance could be construed as taking sides in the KJVO debate, which I will not go into here.