Does anyone know any major discussions on this verse, here or elsewhere? 1. Why and what and how and all that about the decision to translate the word Son or God? How many manuscripts with Son? How many manuscripts with God? 2. Bosom considered an "idiom"...how did this word become "side" or "near"? I have to admit this is the first verse I look at when over the years I look at new translations, and I have seen that NLT and ESV have switched over to "GOD" in the verse from their older editions. God is in the Received Text and Nestle-Aband. I prefer God because of it, but I do realize that there are existing manuscripts that have Son, possibly the Stephanus (spelling?) and others. I just want to settle this once and for all; so, I would so kindly appreciate any and all helps --- to just have peace about it. Thanks so very, very, kindly.