John 1:45-51

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by mandym, Feb 19, 2011.

  1. mandym

    mandym
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    If you don't mind helping out a knucklehead I could use some help clearing up a question I have.

    In John 2:11 it gives every indication that the water to wine was the first sign miracle listed in John. However, when you look back at John 1:45-51 there is no doubt a miracle here with all the same elements of a sign for the following reasons:

    1. Jesus revealed His omniscience v.47
    2. The event was clearly understood by Nathanael as miraculous v.49
    3. The result was that someone believed v.50

    So what is it about 2:11 that ignores this event as a sign miracle?
     
  2. webdog

    webdog
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    Not sure it's so much a miracle as it is prophecy.
     
  3. Zenas

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    I would consider a sign as something that is intended to convey a message, i.e., a public miracle. It would typically have a visual component and be sufficiently out of the ordinary to get the people's attention. Most signs would be a miracle but not all miracles would be signs.

    Water into wine would show Jesus's supernatural powers. It would also be a message to the people of His cleansing or purifying power.
     
  4. Robert Snow

    Robert Snow
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    Jesus' discussion with Nathanael was something Jesus said. Turning the water into wine is something Jesus did. This was the first miracle in which He did something. The scripture must be talking about a physical act when it says this was Jesus' first miracle.
     
  5. BobinKy

    BobinKy
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    Thanks for sharing your insight.

    ...Bob
     
  6. mandym

    mandym
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    In Ch 6 Jesus walks on water. This was also a private miracle. But it considered one of the 8 sign miracles.
     
  7. John of Japan

    John of Japan
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    Two things. First of all, that fact that Jesus revealed His omniscience means that He was revealing an attribute of deity. He was just saying, "I'm God," He wasn't doing a miracle per se.

    Secondly, I don't think that v. 49 teaches that Nathanael believed it was a miracle. I think he recognized it as a demonstration of a divine attribute. There are three or four Greek words used for miracle in the NT, and none of them are mentioned in this passage.

    I hope this helps. :type:
     
    #7 John of Japan, Feb 21, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 21, 2011
  8. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler
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    Please allow me to divert the thread for a moment. My father-in-law, a Baptist pastor, pointed this out to me. I had never seen it before. Notice the similarities between these two verses:

    John 1:51 He then added, "I tell you the truth, you shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man."

    Gen 28:12 "And he dreamed, and behold a ladder set up on the earth, and the top of it reached to heaven: and behold the angels of God ascending and descending on it."

    Jesus is Jacob's ladder! He is the way to heaven. Whoever gets to heaven gets there on his shoulders, so to speak. I'll bet some of you preachers can build a good sermon on that.

    Now, back to the OP
     
  9. HankD

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    It was a sign to the Apostles who were to be His witnesses?

    HankD
     

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