If you don't mind helping out a knucklehead I could use some help clearing up a question I have. In John 2:11 it gives every indication that the water to wine was the first sign miracle listed in John. However, when you look back at John 1:45-51 there is no doubt a miracle here with all the same elements of a sign for the following reasons: 1. Jesus revealed His omniscience v.47 2. The event was clearly understood by Nathanael as miraculous v.49 3. The result was that someone believed v.50 So what is it about 2:11 that ignores this event as a sign miracle?