John 3:16-17 (KJV) " For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved." The truth be known, a full understanding of Christ’s atonement for the sins of the elect revolves around a proper understanding of these verses which can be quoted by most Christians. To gain a full understanding of the verse, we should proceed to the end and discuss the word "might." Does might mean "has the possibility to" as in "the world through Him has the possibility to be saved" or does it mean "will in time" as in "the world through Him will in time be saved"? Let us examine a few verses in John’s gospel with the word "might." John 10:17 "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again." Is it the mere possibility of Christ raising from the dead, or is it a surety that it will in time occur? John 11:4 " When Jesus heard that, he said, This sickness is not unto death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God might be glorified thereby." Will the Son of God in time be glorified, or is that just a possibility? John 17:12 "While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled." Did Judas have a chance to thwart the plan of God, or was it predestined that he would in time, perform his evil deed? John 19:24 " They said therefore among themselves, Let us not rend it, but cast lots for it, whose it shall be: that the scripture might be fulfilled, which saith, They parted my raiment among them, and for my vesture they did cast lots. These things therefore the soldiers did." Is it possible that the scriptures would not be fulfilled, or was it in God’s will that they would in time be fulfilled? John 10:35 tells us that "the scripture can not be broken." Why is this word important? Because, if the word "might" means "will in time" then the word "world" cannot mean everybody unless we are to believe that everybody without exception will in time be saved. The "world" of John 3 is not intended to be the entire scope of mankind. It is, instead, to show the nation of Israel that the calling of God was no longer to them alone. As Revelation 5 tells us, Christ was "slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation … " not out of the Jewish nation only.