Jn. 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. 39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day. 1. In the underlined portion of verse 38 Jesus is claiming he came down from heaven specifically to do the Father's will. The specific aspect of the Father's will he came down to do, is then explicitly stated in verse 39 "that of all which he hath given me, I should lose nothing" 2. Does not this demand the Father had to have given this "ALL" prior to the incarnation or else how could Christ claim it is this aspect of the Father's will he came down to perform?? 3. Does not the Perfect tense verb "given" also give support this act of giving was a completed action prior to the incarnation? 4. Since the "ALL" having been given is the stated specific intent for Christ coming to earth, then does not that demand that both were part of God's eternal purpose of salvation prior to the incarnation, prior to the foundation of the world that Christ came to fulfill? 5. Since Christ came to secure the salvation of "all" given, and the given had to occur prior to Christ's coming, does not that prove that both were part of the eternal purpose by God before the world began and the "given" are synonymous with the "chosen" to salvation (2 Thes. 2:13) before the world? If not, then who else but those "given" actually do come to Christ other than those "chosen to salvation" before the world began?????? 6. How can it be possible to "give" a specific number "OF ALL" to Christ if the Father never first chose them to give to the Son?????? How could he give what he never chose or selected, since the given constitute "ALL" given equal all coming equals "OF ALL" actually finally saved??? How is it possible for the Father to "give" a specific people the Father never first chose to give to the Son?