I preached from John 8:1-11 this last Sunday. As I researched this passage I found that there is some question to whether or not it was originally part of the book of John. According to my commentaries, some ancient manuscripts place this passage in Luke and many omit it completely. Does anyone have further insight to this passage? My commentaries say some manuscripts, but which ones? Which ones leave it out and which ones move it? My Scofield notes say that Augustine commented on these verses in the forth century and said that they had been removed from some manuscripts because of a fear that they would promote adultery. Again I ask, which manuscripts? I would appreciate your thoughts.