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King James Problem Words

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Crabtownboy, Apr 1, 2008.

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  1. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    Since I quoted the whole post of Logos1350, to which you repled with a partial cite (what you cut out, I embolded), what is allegedly "specious" about his post, even without the part you omitted? There is not one thing that is false or misleading, hence "specious", in his statements, here.

    One can prefer any version, but that does not necessarily make it a good one. However, it is also not automatically "specious" to prefer or not prefer any version, for a good reason.

    I can give an example of "specious" reasoning, as to versions, however. Let us say that I prefer the DARBY. Whether or not is is a good version is debatable, as is any version. But an example of "specious" reasoning would be to say that John N. Darby was wrong on his ideas of dispensations and eschatology, so therefore the DARBY version could not possibly be a good version of Scripture.

    The two are not equal, and actually for one to say this, would mean that he or she knows what everyone else believed, who happened to translate their favorite version, about those subjests, and were absolutely correct in their interpretations. That fallacy simply will not hold water.

    Ed
     
  2. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    I'm way too cheap to buy it, but don't you really mean a 1611 English Dictionary?
    In fact, I'm so cheap, about this, I'm not even gonna' look for one on eBay! [​IMG][​IMG]

    Ed
     
    #82 EdSutton, Apr 3, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 3, 2008
  3. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    I've asked the same question about John Wycliffe, if not the dictionary. Not one person has answered it for me, either. I am constantly amazed at so many who pay a great deal of 'vocal' "lip service" to Desiderius Erasmus, John Wycliffe, William Tyndale, Martin Luther, et. al., as regards the Bible, but never offer to quote the first time from any of their versions, as well.
    Exactly!

    Actually, it is beyond "ridiculous"!

    Ed
     
  4. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Say what?

    Conversation is received by others in any form of communication, while conduct doesn't always mean communication. Conduct also relates to how one may behave while being alone. Here we find that conversation is the correct word regarding our testimony.

    Believe me, my conduct in the potty would be considered very offensive if I tried to converse my bodily functions in a conversation for others in any form of communication.

    In regard to the Scriptural application, the charge is sustained.

    Not. God isn't responsible for leaving all men unsure of life in that Jesus came so they might have life and that more abundantly.
     
  5. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Whattsamatta? Too lazy to do a websearch for "online 1828?:laugh:
     
  6. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    I have no idea where you come up with your logic, but it needs rechecked.

    Before you added to your house, did you have the very room in the very same place, with the same nails and boards, drywall, lights, wire and all other things in place two months before you started in the same way that the room exist two months after the room was complete?

    If you house exist for one moment, it has changed. Time is change, even if you do not ad on. Entropy brings change, even if you do not add a room.

    Every heard of the saying..." you cannot step twice in the same river"..?

    No...your hand now has a head that controls your hand that has a beard on it. Where as before you had a hand that was controlled by a head that had a face with no beard.


    I'm done...you can have the last word.


    In Christ...James
     
    #86 Jarthur001, Apr 3, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 3, 2008
  7. Gayla

    Gayla New Member

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    Wouldest thou please use a larger font when posting the quotes and references?:smilewinkgrin: :type:
    It's hard on my eyes.
     
  8. David Lamb

    David Lamb Active Member

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    I agree with the first part, but not the second. We no longer speak and write as the Anglo-Saxons did:
    Fæder ure þu þe eart on heofonum, Si þin nama gehalgod. to becume þin rice, gewurþe ðin willa, on eorðan swa swa on heofonum. urne gedæghwamlican hlaf syle us todæg, and forgyf us ure gyltas, swa swa we forgyfað urum gyltendum. and ne gelæd þu us on costnunge, ac alys us of yfele. soþlice.

    That was a different language, as you say. I don't think anyone is trying to claim that "KJV English" is anywhere near as different to the way we speak and write today as Old English/Anglo Saxon is. But just because philologists classify both the way we speak now and the way English was spoken in the 1400s, as "Modern English", that doesn't mean that historical documents use the same words, phrasing and grammar as we do today. If it did, there would have been no point in the 1611 translation, because the Great Bible, Tyndale's translation, Coverdale's, and others were technically speaking in "Modern English".
     
  9. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    Imagine what it would look like if the KJVOs took the same amount of time they take trying to combat the MVs and used it to study the Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic languages so they could study and know the truth.

    Sure is a good thing we don't have many of those days of the past when a number of Christians practiced slavery. Imagine having the same argument today that the south and north had over the issue of slavery. WOW!
     
  10. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    As long as those studies prove to enhance the word of God rather than deny it, I agree!

    The arguement over slavery wasn't about slave ownership, but the RIGHT of states to govern themselves apart from a dictatorial national government.

    Slavery only aggrevated the situation. You comparison is therefore a faulty one.

    Besides, if you want to open up the can of worms about slavery, then may I suggest you consider who it was that captured their own race, sold them to the English and North American slave traders!

    Then go back and see where the Lord has His hand in the whole thing and look where many former slaves and their ancestors became Christians trusting in the same Christ we do!:wavey:
     
  11. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    "Hurting the eyes" is just another way of dimming the sight.
     
  12. Gayla

    Gayla New Member

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    Whatcha mean by that, Salamander?
     
  13. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    You cannot enhance the word of God. It is what it is--God's word. Al you can do is study it to find out what God communicated.

    Remember why there are southern and northern Baptists. I seriously doubt that slaves became Christians because of slavery but rather because of the gospel.
     
  14. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Lets stay on topic - which is not slavery and state's rights.
     
  15. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    If one were to use much of the same reasoning of the KJVOs they would have to admit their Bible is horribly translated because there are so many words left out of the most excellent translations that preceded it. They would have to admit that they are liberals because they use the KJV which omits words that were purposely used in previous translations.
     
  16. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    How about when you started?
     
  17. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    Are you mistaking my illustrations for my logic? I don't know. Perhaps my logic comes from my career in applied science.

    In any event we have stepped off topic. Perhaps we can discuss this some other time and place.

    My last word is God Bless.

    A.F.
     
  18. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    My parents knew nothing about the Bible but they had one in the house on the table. One day when I was by myself I picked up the family Bible and tried reading it only to quickly realize I understood almost nothing. I did not read a Bible for about 7 years later. I tried reading that same Bible again and came to the same conclusion as I had before. Shortly after that, I encountered a Living Bible and read it for about 15 to 30 minutes each day. Later I bought an NAS.

    You tell me, is it better to let a translation sit and collect dust that you do not understand or read one that you do understand? Is it better to look at a Bible that you know you do not understand or is it better to read a translation for 15-30 minutes each day that you do understand?

    It is a no-brainer for anyone to know which Bible God used first in my life.
     
  19. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    When KJV-only reasoning is applied consistently, it does become a problem for that view. The actual evidence shows that the KJV translators make the same type changes as they updated and revised the pre-1611 English Bibles as later translations from the same underlying texts have made to the KJV.

    The 1611 KJV was officially a revision of the Bishops' Bible.
    Here are some examples from the book of Job of how the KJV translators made the language of the Bishops' Bible simpler in some cases or updated the language in other cases.

    Job 1:5 and gat up early (Bishops) and rose up early (KJV)
    Job 5:2 wrathfulness (Bishops) wrath (KJV)
    Job 5:2 the ignorant (Bishops) the silly one (KJV)
    Job 5:17 blessed is the man (Bishops) happy is the man (KJV)
    Job 5:22 destruction and dearth (Bishops) destruction and famine (KJV)
    Job 5:25 posterity (Bishops) offspring (KJV)
    Job 6:7 The things that sometime I might not away withal (Bishops)
    The things that my soul refused to touch (KJV)

    Job 6:23 hand of the tyrants (Bishops) hand of the mighty (KJV)
    Job 7:12 a whale fish (Bishops) a whale (KJV)
    Job 10:21 Afore I go thither from whence (Bishops) Before I go whence (KJV)
    Job 12:6 they that maliciously meddle against God dwell without care (Bishops)
    they that provoke God are secure (KJV)
    Job 12:17 out of their wits (Bishops) fools (KJV)
    Job 15:32 afore his time (Bishops) before his time (KJV)
    Job 17:1 I am hard at death’s door (Bishops) the graves are ready for me (KJV)
    Job 17:2 Froward men are with me (Bishops) Are there not mockers with me (KJV)
    Job 18:10 a pitfall (Bishops) a trap (KJV)
    Job 18:19 any posterity (Bishops) any remaining (KJV)
    Job 19:19 All my most familiars (Bishops) All my inward friends (KJV)
    Job 20:8 vanish as a dream (Bishops) fly away as a dream (KJV)
    Job 20:15 shall he parbreak (Bishops) he shall vomit (KJV)
    Job 21:13 in wealthiness (Bishops) in wealth (KJV)
    Job 22:10 compassed about (Bishops) are round about (KJV)
    Job 23:11 his high way have I holden (Bishops) his way have I kept (KJV)
    Job 27:13 tyrants (Bishops) oppressors (KJV)
    Job 27:21 A vehement east wind (Bishops) The east wind (KJV)
    Job 28:18 gabis (Bishops) pearls (KJV)
    Job 30:9 jesting stock (Bishops) byword (KJV)
    Job 30:27 My bowels seethe (Bishops) My bowels boiled (KJV)
    Job 31:25 my hand gat so much (Bishops) mine hand had gotten much (KJV)
    Job 35:14 thou sayest to God (Bishops) thou sayest (KJV)
    Job 36:16 quiet replenished with fatness (Bishops) should be full of fatness (KJV)
    Job 41:7 the fish panier with his head (Bishops) his head with fish spears (KJV)
    Job 42:10 as he had afore (Bishops) as he had before (KJV)
     
  20. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    This is tough. I wasn't saved until I was 18 and did not grow up in a Christian home, plus that was been 34 years. I do remember learning words like "conversation" and "careful" and did not have a real hard time learning what they meant when they were in the Bible. I have always had something of a wide vocabulary so the new words were not that difficult.

    I have a deep appreciate for 17th century English, there are times, such as in the word "careful" where I think the KJV word does the far better job than any new one. I think there are times when the newer version change words just to be different, for example in 1 Corinthians 5 where the the AV uses the phrase "the love of Christ constrains us" To mind there is no better English word than "constrain."

    Saying that, I do not think we need to be compelled to use words, phrases, and grammar that are not in normal use today. I don't think the 21st century reader should have to consult a dictionary when he is doing his Bible reading or devotional study.
     
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