King James Problem Words

I see you have no proof.

 

Um, Hebrew is presently being taught in colleges, as well as Greek. I know of no one who is ptresently teaching Aramaic.

I have been taught this about the Hebrew: it is which rabbinic order you follow that determines what you believe.

Greek: the verb tense you know is used determines the outcome. Determining that verb tense is hard to do except where it presents no contradiction to other Greek references in Scripture.

The root definitions of English words never change, so to demand the word of God to change with man's definitions of words places the authority over the word of God in the hands of men which can only use the intellect to explain the Bible, BUT GOD! uses His Spirit to present the Truth according to Scripture and not taking man's int=ellect into consideration, only his heart. The heart is that very center essence of a man's being and cannot be explained as simply his intellect or solely his mind.

God's "learning" never changes, neither has God, not will he.

Man's learning is subject and willing to vanity and changes with the waves of the sea.

While men change, and men change the Bible to fit their intellect, I'll stick with the KJB!:godisgood:

 

Sure:

Isaiah 55:8¶For my thoughts [are] not your thoughts, neither [are] your ways my ways, saith the LORD.
Isa 55:9For [as] the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.
Isa 55:10For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:
Isa 55:11So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper [in the thing] whereto I sent it.

Of course it doesn't, and that is not what I said.

When a man places God's word within the confines of his intellect, he is then limiting the dealings of the Spirit.

One cannot limit God.

Those who have ears to hear and eyes to see understand what thus saith the Lord and are then prospered beyond the intellect!!!:godisgood:

 

A-MEN! And when men don't understand the mind of the Spirit he doesn't upbraid them for it either!

 

Ok, "¿Qué tal?" means "how are you?" but very casual. "¿Cómo está usted?" or "¿Cómo estás?" means "How do you do?" or "¿How are you?". "¿Cómo es?" means "How is it?", asking for a description of something. "¿Cómo está?" can also mean "how is he?" when refering to a person or "how is it?" when refering to a thing about which you want to know a temporary feature. For example, is you say "¿Cómo está?" refering to a soup, you are asking whether it is good, or wether it is too hot...

From any English text this portion cannot be fully understood accurately without referring to other verses dealing with our love for God and His love for us and how to deal with others concerning the will of God.

Even then, one will add their ideas into the mix and as long as it remains in harmony according to the context the co0mparison verses are used, it only proves the vitality and liveliness of the word of God.

Of course the age old arguement goes that no one could understand this portion without knowing the Greek, but actually the English supports the Greek understanding in the definitions of "love" in a concise, yet exhaustive dictionary.

 

A child would never ask a parent Como estas. It would be disrespectful. A translation of the words into English would not reveal that. A child would be surprised if the parent asked him Como esta.

Then explain the two words which are tranlsated with the same word love. The two words which are translated with the one English word love are very different. One would not know the difference until he studied how those words were used and what they meant in that society at the time.

 

The grammar that is commonly used was written by one of W.F. Albright's students

Yes and no. There are cases where the same word is used but that is seldom. Most of the time the form has a distinct ending.

When did someone change the manuscripts?

None of the comments you made were written in KJV style of usage. Does that make you a liberal because you used modern English to explain things?

Was the KJV good enough for Jesus?

 

Back on the same merry-go-round again. We have stopped discussing problem words and are back on the same tired arguments.