In another thread the topic was brought up of the phrase the "kingdom of heaven." If one will notice that in very mention of this phrase in the Gospel of Matthew and even in John 3, according to the aleph text, the word used for heaven is always plural and there is always a definite article in front of it. So the correct word-for-word rendering is not the kingdom of heave, but rather the kingdom of the heavens. Yet to date I have not seen a translation of the Bible that correctly renders this phrase as it was originally given. My question was why is that? I don't know if we can talk about what it means, maybe that is for another section of the board. By the way I have some conclusions, but brought it up for others to ponder. This was brought to my attention about a year ago and I have been studying through the matter ever since. I even showed it to one of my aquaintances, who had studied Greek, and he was unfamiliar with it. Looking forward to the discussion.