KJV Jesus/Joshua

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by twomontes, Jan 31, 2008.

  1. twomontes

    twomontes
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    Can anyone help me understand why in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 in the KJV Joshua is interpreted Jesus? All other interpretations use the name Joshua.
     
  2. The Archangel

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    Sure! I'll give it a shot.

    Joshua's and Jesus' name are the same. If the NT had been written in Hebrew, Jesus' name would have been pronounced "Joshua." Joshua is the Hebrew; Jesus is the Greek.

    After looking at the text in Greek, the Greek forms are the same.

    Unfortunately, the KJV translators did not consider the context of the passage when choosing which name the text was speaking about. The context clearly shows it should be Joshua.

    Hope that helps.

    Many Blessings,

    The Archangel
     
  3. Rubato 1

    Rubato 1
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    BTW, it is interesting (if you ever are in a discussion w/a/ Jew, bring this up) to note that Jesus, the ultimate Jew, was known by a Greek name, and has been now for these two thousand years.

    I don't think I would say that the KJV translators did not consider the context. That is not giving them much credit. They must have had some reason for doing so.
     
  4. twomontes

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    Thanks guys,its sure nice to throw it to people smarter than this old man :godisgood:
     
  5. Jerome

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    "Jesus" was the more common rendering among the English Bibles that predated the KJV: Wycliffe, Geneva, Bishops, e.g..
     
  6. Jerome

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    Tyndale employed "Joshua" however.
     
  7. Linda64

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    From the "New Defender's Study Bible" by the late Dr. Henry M. Morris: notes on Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8:

    Acts 7:45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;

    7:45 with Jesus. This reference, of course is to Joshua, whose name was the Hebrew form of "Jesus" (meaning "Jehovah the Savior," or simply "salvation"). Possibly Stephen inserted this name here deliberately in order to subtly call attention to the parallel ministries of Joshua, who conquered Canaan, and Jesus, who had come to conquer Satan, sin, and death.

    Hebrews 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.

    4:8 Jesus. Most expositors understand this to mean "Joshua," since "Jesus" is a Greek form of "Joshua," who is otherwise never mentioned by name in the New Testament. It is also possible to understand this as actually referring to the Lord Jesus Christ, who before His incarnation may have been revealed as "the angel of his presence" (Isaiah 63:9). "In his love and in his pity he redeemed them" as He led them into the promised land under Joshua. In any case, this was not the ultimate "rest" which God had promised His people, as the next verses show. (Hebrews 4:9-11). Joshua 22:4 is referenced in verse 8:

    Joshua 22:4 And now the LORD your God hath given rest unto your brethren, as he promised them: therefore now return ye, and get you unto your tents, and unto the land of your possession, which Moses the servant of the LORD gave you on the other side Jordan.

    The KJV translated those verses correctly...therefore they did consider the context of the passages. The name "Joshua" in Greek is "Jesus"...both names meaning the same thing: "Jehovah the Savior," or simply "salvation."
     
  8. EdSutton

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    Welcome to the Baptist Board.

    Ed
     
  9. EdSutton

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    Then Tyndale got it right, in these two passages!

    Ed
     
  10. Jarthur001

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    I agree with your answer, but I want to remind you of a small detail.

    Yeshua is the Hebrew name of Jesus. The old English “y” sound was rendered as “j” and this is why we now have Jesus as Christ name in the English.

    BTW....There is a movement saying we must address Jesus in His Hebrew name, in order for salvation to happen, one must say Christ’s name as it was first written in His day. Much like the Jews of the Old Testament handled the name Yahweh in that it was so holy they used LORD in place of it. Likewise this new YAHushua movement teaches to not say the name as the Jews did is wrong, but claims the sacred name YAHushua must be used and not Jesus. This movement wants to add back the “y” sound along with “ah” giving you “YAHushua” as the name of Christ. YAHushua means “Yahweh is Salvation” or LORD is salvation.
     
    #10 Jarthur001, Feb 1, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 1, 2008
  11. Aaron

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    Jesus and Joshua are not the only name left in its Greek form. Consider:

    Elias (Elijah)
    Eliseus (Elisha)
    Osee (Hosea)

    to name a few.
     
  12. Logos1560

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    At Hebrews 4:8, Tyndale's, 1535 Coverdale's, 1537 Matthew's, Coverdale's 1538 Duoglott English-Latin N. T., 1539 Great, 1539 Taverner's, and 1557 Whittingham's have "Joshua." At Acts 7:45, Tyndale's, Coverdale's, Matthew's, and Great Bibles have "Joshua."

    A mark by "Jesus" at Hebrews 4:8 in the Geneva Bible referred to this marginal note: "He speaketh of Joshua the son of Nun." The margin of the 1611 KJV had the following note concerning their rendering "Jesus" at Hebrews 4:8: "That is Joshua."

    All the editions of Luther's German Bible published during Luther's lifetime have "Josua" (Joshua) at Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8.


     

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