Those who advocate a KJV-only view seem to be very inconsistent about their claims or reasoning concerning the supposed omitting or adding words to a translation. Do KJV-only advocates discuss the fact that there are many differences in number of words in the texts and translations that are placed on the KJV-only view's stream or line of good Bibles? For example, Luther's German Bible did not include 1 John 5:7, Mark 11:26, and Luke 17:36 and yet it is placed on the KJV-only view's line of good Bibles. Peter Ruckman even recommends Luther's German Bible. Some early English Bibles such as Tyndale's, 1535 Coverdale's, and 1537 Matthew's Bible that are on the KJV-only view's line of good Bibles also do not have Mark 11:26 and Luke 17:36. The Peshitta Syriac Bible is placed on the KJV-only view line of good Bibles. The old Peshitta has the following rendering at Revelation 14:4 as translated in the 1851 Murdock's "redeemed by Jesus from among men" where the KJV only has "redeemed from among men." The Majority Text Interlinear also has "redeemed by Jesus from among men" at Revelation 14:4. According to a consistent application of typical KJV-only reasoning, would it be fair to suggest that the KJV omits the words "by Jesus" at Revelation 14:4? Does the KJV-only view advocate a double standard?