The King James Version states -- Thou shalt not kill (Exodus 20: 13) Thou shalt not kill (Deut. 5:17)Now compare Matthew 19:18 in these early English versions -- The sayde, he vnto him: Which? Iesus saide: Thou shalt not kyll: thou shalt not breake wedlocke: thou shalt not steale: thou shalt beare no false wytnes: (Coverdale) He sayd to him, Which? And Iesus sayde, These, Thou shalt not kill: Thou shalt not commit adulterie: Thou shalt not steale: Thou shalt not beare false witnesse. (Geneva) He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, (KJV)What justification can be offered for the KJV rendering of "murder" in the context of quotation of the OT's Sixth Commandment? If "murder" is the intended meaning then isn't "kill" a bit vague? If "kill" is the intended meaning then isn't "murder" too specific? Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment: (Matthew 5:21) Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother. (Luke 18:20) For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if [there be] any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. (Romans 13:9) For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. (James 2:11)It is the same Greek word phoneuo (Strong's #5407) in all five NT verses above. Clearly, not every time a human being is killed is the action legally defined as committing homicide or should be ethically categorized as murderous. More simply put: all murder is killing, but not all killing is murder. It is simply indisputable that "murder" has a more narrow range of meaning than "kill". Webster's 1828 Dictionary states -- KILL, v.t. 1. To deprive of life, animal or vegetable, in any manner or by any means. To kill an animal or a plant, is to put an end to the vital functions, either by destroying or essentially injuring the organs necessary to life, or by causing them to cease from action. An animal may be killed by the sword or by poison, by disease or by suffocation. A strong solution of salt will kill plants. 2. To butcher; to slaughter for food; as, to kill an ox. 3. To quell; to appease; to calm; to still; as, in seamen's language, a shower of rain kills the wind. MUR'DER, n. [L. mors.] 1. The act of unlawfully killing a human being with premeditated malice, by a person of sound mind. To constitute murder in law, the person killing another must be of sound mind or in possession of his reason, and the act must be done with malice prepense, aforethought or premeditated; but malice may be implied, as well as express. 2. An outcry, when life is in danger. MUR'DER, v.t. 1. To kill a human being with premeditated malice. [See the Noun.] 2. To destroy; to put an end to. However, this is NOT a theological or moral discussion (no need to expound upon war, self defense, accidental deaths [manslaughter], capital punishment, etc.). This is a strictly question about consistent or proper translation in the KJV.