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KJVO Walked Out on Me!

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Dr. Bob, Feb 16, 2003.

  1. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    Well it seems clear to me that you are wrong again.
     
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Then, if the KJV is a perfect translation, why are there imperfections in the translation?
     
  3. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    KJVOnlyism precludes someone from being a fundamentalist by any meaning of the word.
     
  4. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    No imperfections! The KJV is the perfect preserved words of God.
     
  5. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Would you like me to point out the imperfections?
     
  6. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    There are no imperfections !There are doubts however.Those doubts are planted by the Devil so people will reject the true word of GOD the KJV.
    Read s l o w l y n o im p e r f ec t i o n s!
     
  7. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    In other words, you don't want me to list the imperfections so you can examine them.
     
  8. AV Defender

    AV Defender New Member

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    I do! there has been "scholars"(term used loosely) who claimed errors or imperfections in the KJB;they have yet to prove ONE.Am I to belive you can do better????
     
  9. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    I do! there has been "scholars"(term used loosely) who claimed errors or imperfections in the KJB;they have yet to prove ONE.Am I to belive you can do better???? </font>[/QUOTE]I would like to see them too.
     
  10. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    Fire away John!
     
  11. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form..." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition, as in Genesis 19:26.

    Genesis 10:9 should read "...Nimrod the mighty hunter in place of [in opposition to] the LORD." The word "before" is incorrect and gives the connotation that Nimrod was a good guy, which is false.

    Leviticus 16:8, 10, 26 in the KJV is "scapegoat" which today has the connotation of someone who is unjustly blamed for other's sins. The Hebrew is Azazel, which means "one removed or separated." The Azazel goal represents Satan, who is no scapegoat. He is guilty of his part in our sins.

    Deuteronomy 24:1, "then let him" should be "and he." As the Jesus explained in Matthew 19, Moses did not command divorce. This statute is regulating the permission of divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.

    II Kings 2:23, should be "young men", not "little children."

    Isaiah 65:17 should be "I am creating [am about to create] new heavens and new earth..."

    Ezekiel 20:25 should read "Wherefore I permitted them, or gave them over to, [false] statutes that are not good, and judgments whereby they should not live." God's laws are good, perfect and right. This verse shows that since Israel rejected God's laws, He allowed them to hurt themselves by following false man made customs and laws.

    Daniel 8:14 is correct in the margin, which substitutes "evening morning" for "days." Too bad William Miller didn't realize this.

    Malachi 4:6 should read "...lest I come and smite the earth with utter destruction." "Curse" doesn't give the proper sense here. Same word used in Zechariah 14:11.

    Matthew 5:48 should be "Become ye therefore perfect" rather than "be ye therefore perfect." "Perfect" here means "spiritually mature."

    Matthew 24:22 needs an additional word to clarify the meaning. It should say "there should no flesh be saved alive."

    Matthew 27:49 omits text which was in the original. Moffatt correctly adds it, while the RSV puts it in a footnote: "And another took a spear and pierced His side, and out came water and blood." The Savior's death came when a soldier pierced His side, Revelation 1:7.

    Matthew 28:1, "In the end of the sabbath as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week..." should be translated literally, "Now late on Sabbath, as it was getting dusk toward the first day of the week..." The Sabbath does not end at dawn but at dusk.

    Luke 2:14 should say, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men of God's favor (or choosing)." That is, there will be peace on earth among men who have God's good will in their hearts.

    Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo as "hate", when it should be rendered "love less by comparison."

    John 1:17 is contains a poor preposition. "By" should be "through": "For the law was given by [through] Moses . . . ."

    John 13:2 should be "And in the course of supper" or "during supper" rather than "And supper being ended".

    Acts 12:4 has the inaccurate word "Easter" which should be rendered "Passover." The Greek word is pascha which is translated correctly as Passover in Matthew 26:2, etc.

    I Corinthians 1:18 should be: "For the preaching of the cross is to them that are perishing foolishness; but unto us which are being saved it is the power of God", rather than "perish" and "are saved." Likewise, II Thessalonians 2:10 should be "are perishing" rather than "perish."

    I Corinthians 15:29 should be: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the hope of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the hope of the dead?"

    II Corinthians 6:2 should be "a day of salvation", instead of "the day of salvation." This is a quote from Isaiah 49:8, which is correct. The day of salvation is not the same for each individual. The firstfruits have their day of salvation during this life. The rest in the second resurrection.

    I Timothy 4:8 should say, "For bodily exercise profiteth for a little time: but godliness in profitable unto all things..."

    I Timothy 6:10 should be, "For the love of money is a [not the] root of all evil..."

    Hebrews 4:8 should be "Joshua" rather than "Jesus", although these two words are Hebrew and Greek equivalents.

    Hebrews 4:9 should read, "There remaineth therefore a keeping of a sabbath to the people of God."

    Hebrews 9:28 is out of proper order in the King James. It should be: "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them without sin that look for him shall he appear the second time unto salvation."

    I John 5:7-8 contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." The italicized text was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the trinity doctrine.

    Revelation 14:4 should be "a firstfruits", because the 144,000 are not all the firstfruits.

    Revelation 20:4-5 in the KJV is a little confusing until you realize that the sentence "This is the first resurrection." in verse five refers back to "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in verse four.

    Revelation 20:10, "And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are [correction: should be 'were cast' because the beast and false prophet were mortal human beings who were burned up in the lake of fire 1,000 years previous to this time, Revelation 19:20], and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." The point is that Satan will be cast into the same lake of fire into which the beast and false prophet were cast a thousand years previously.

    Revelation 22:2 should be "health" rather than "healing."
     
  12. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Here are some examples of imperfections due to language evolution:

    2 Cor. 8:1 "We do you to wit" should read "We make known to you." Wit, wist, wot, and even wotteth appear many times in the KJV, yet its meaning (know, knew) is no longer commonly known.

    Common outdated verbages: "Let" meant to hinder then; now it means to allow. "Suburbs" in the KJV means "open lands". "Corn" then meant grain, not the crop grown today. "Botch" and "Blains" referred to inflammations. "Advertise" in Num 24:14 meant to "advise". "Prevent" meant only to go before; now it can also mean to keep a thing from happening.

    The names of animals and birds in the KJV are often incorrectly identified due to the lack of knowledge of these 400 years ago. Conies are hares, gledes are falcons, pygargs are mountain-goats, chamois are mountain sheep, roe, roebucks are gazelles, etc. and satyrs, dragons, and unicorns are mythological; they have no place in the Scriptures.

    The word "Brass" appears several times in the OT. "Brass" is incorrect, since only Bronze and copper were available in Old Testament days (brass is an alloy of copper and zinc).

    "Wind" in John 3:8 should be translated "Spirit" (pnuema is so translated everywhere else in the Bible - there is another word for wind).

    "Made" in John 1:3 should read "came into being".

    In John 1:5, "comprehended it not" today would be tralslated "did not overtake it". "Comprehend" once meant "to overtake", but now has a completely different meaning.
     
  13. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    Where are the verse problems you mentioned?
     
  14. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    Has Satan really blinded you that badly? You don't have to agree. You might even have a valid explaination- I do for some of his points. But for you not to see the problems is scary.

    The last time I saw someone so brainwashed as to deny on this level was when a Jehovah's Witness came calling. What you believe is a fabrication, Steve. It comes from the imaginations of vain and prideful people with no solid proof at all. It violates the example of scripture. It contradicts historical facts. And it presents so many logical fallacies as to be a very perverse joke... if it weren't so damaging.
     
  15. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    All I see is another skeptic questioning the Word of God.What's new about that?
     
  16. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    I can only speak for me: I'm not a skeptic of the Word of God. The KJV, the NKJV, the RSV, et al, all all translations of the Word of God. The fact that anyone would place the KJV (or any version, for that matter) above the Greek and Hebrew is heresy.
     
  17. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    The fact that anyone would put ant MV in the same category with the KJV is heresy.
     
  18. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Really? So you think we're all heretics?
     
  19. HeDied4U

    HeDied4U Well-Known Member
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    I'm no expert in the field of which version is better than another (I have my preference, the NASB), so therefore I probably sholdn't be making a comment, but I will anyway :D :D

    It has been stated in an earlier posting...

    Now, I've been hanging out on the BB long enough to have seen posts stating that the KJV underwent sereral "revisions" in the 1600's and the 1700's. If this is truly the case, then which one of those is the "perfect preserved Word of God?" And if the KJV is the "perfect preserved Word of God," why were any revisions needed to begin with?

    Just my 3 cents worth (used to 2 cents, but with inflation and all... :D [​IMG] )

    God Bless!!!

    Adam [​IMG]
     
  20. Steve K.

    Steve K. Guest

    If you realy want the truth go to biblebelievers.com and read the so called changes.
     
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