I know people profess and accuse of the KJVO stand, but how isd it possible to be KJVO when the King James Bible is a translation from previous texts. Now I agree that the KJB is the complete Word, inerrant, infallable, inspired Word of God, but how does that explain the exitence of KJVO when to say that only the KJB is the Word when the Word existed in "Byzantine" MSS? I see the whole aspect of KJVO as ridiculous in trying to establish the KJB as the only copy of God's Word when we all know the KJB came from MSS/ pervious writings in the Ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek. Am I the "only" one who sees this? This whole debate seems more concocted than a reality. Yall hash it out while I sit back and laugh!