Since my entire post was deleted unfairly,and perhaps it should have only been edited, I'd like to pose a question. Originally the question was whether or not the KJV is too literal translating the Holy Spirit in Rom 8 as "itself" instead of "Himself", the point was made the English noun should be neuter, because it is in Greek, and others, including myself saying the Spirit should be translated by the masculine noun, "Himself" The other part of the question is that the Holy Spirit in the KJV is translated "Holy Ghost" and "Holy Spirit". Why? If the Greek makes no distinction, why should we? The person who defended the Holy Spirit as translated "itself" inconsistently believes that the Spirit should be rendered "Holy Ghost" or "Holy Spirit", when in the donor language there is no distinction.