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"Logic" and Bible versions

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Mexdeaf, Apr 21, 2010.

  1. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    I have never started a single thread attacking the MVs, but there are multiple threads started by MVs attacking the KJV.

    It kind of reminds me of all the celebrities who went on TV after the 9/11 attacks and asked that Americans be tolerant of the Muslims. I found that very offensive, as it was the Muslims who attacked us. They should have been on TV asking the Muslims to be tolerant, not us.

    And you are doing the same thing here. The overwhelming majority of attacks have come from you MVs, not us who hold to the KJV.

    It is amazing a person can be so unaware of their own actions.
     
  2. TomVols

    TomVols New Member

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    Total bromide. I have yet to see threads attacking the KJV, just asking for questions. However, the attacks on God's Word by the KJVO side are too numerous to count. MVs are attacked as well as their proponents.

    Hank is right. While opponents of the Bible may be brothers, we should correct them as we stand for the faith once for all delivered unto the saints.
     
  3. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Hmm, but it wasn't until 1611 that God allowed the "right" men to come together with the "right" source texts to create a "perfect" translation- isn't that what KJVO's believe in a nutshell?

    If so that means the Bible as YOU define it did not come into existence until 1611. Or maybe it was 1769.

    Nothing there but pure logic.
     
  4. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Well, I do believe that God in his providence brought together these men to translate the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts into English. For over a thousand years the Catholic Church held a stranglehold over men (which is exactly what they wanted).

    You almost seem to argue that when God finished his revelation to John on Patmos that he stepped out of the picture. That is a form of deism. I believe God is still at work, and has more to accomplish. That is certainly what the book of Revelation shows.

    I do not say that 1611 is when the scriptures came into existence, however I do believe the various texts were brought together into a single book we call the Bible.

    And this is not the first time this has happened. I was reading Nehemiah this week, and this very thing is shown.

    Neh 8:1 And all the people gathered themselves together as one man into the street that was before the water gate; and they spake unto Ezra the scribe to bring the book of the law of Moses, which the LORD had commanded to Israel.

    Babylon had destroyed Jerusalem, broken down it's walls and temple, and burned the city. The Jews were carried away captive for 70 years. Now Nehemiah came back and rebuilt the city from ruins. He found the scriptures in the ruins and read them aloud to all the people.

    So, in a sense, the scriptures had been lost for a time, but God preserved them and re-introduced them to the people.

    And there is something else about this event that is special. Many scholars believe it is shown the scriptures had to be translated to the Jews as many of them that returned did not know the Hebrew language.

    Neh 8:7 Also Jeshua, and Bani, and Sherebiah, Jamin, Akkub, Shabbethai, Hodijah, Maaseiah, Kelita, Azariah, Jozabad, Hanan, Pelaiah, and the Levites, caused the people to understand the law: and the people stood in their place.
    8 So they read in the book in the law of God distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading.


    It seems the Lord does not have the same difficulty with translations as some here do.
     
    #64 Winman, Apr 24, 2010
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 24, 2010
  5. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Sigh... don't put words in my mouth.

    Wrong. The Bible existed in a single book before 1611. and in English even! What happened was some men were not happy with what the current versions said so they decided a more- shall we say- 'king-friendly' translation was in order.

    That has absolutely nothing to do with translations, does it?

    Perhaps the scholars are correct. Then again, it may have well been that the Priests and Levites gave an EXPOSITION of the law and not a translation. At any rate, how does this bolster your case or weaken mine?
     
  6. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    I knew that.

    You know, this is getting foolish now. You have your mind made up, I have my mind made up. Believe what you want to believe.
     
  7. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Thanks for FINALLY giving me permission!:laugh:
     
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