I have a question regarding what seems like a discrepancy in the Gospel of John. In John chapter 8:1-12 we have the story of the woman taken in adultery being brought to Jesus in an attempt by the pharisees to discredit Him. They were ready to stone the woman as being guilty of adultery in accordance with Mosaic law, had Jesus not intervened there is little doubt that they would have stoned her to death. So far so good, I have read this story a million times and preached on it often. Here is the question. In John 18:31 when Jesus was brought before Pilate for trial he told the Jewish leaders to judge Him by their own laws. They responded that they did not have the right to execute anyone. So why the difference? Were they simply trying to get some one else to do their dirty work or would they have been in violation of Roman law by stoning the woman taken in adultery? Just to clarify, while I know that there are some who contend that John 8:1-12 is a late addition to the Gospel and this story was not originally in it. I am not sold on that position, also, to me this question does not represent a trial of faith but is merely an interesting question that I thought I would get some outside opinion on.