Featured looking for some clarification

Again, utter foolishness.

John 1, NASB

43 The next day He purposed to go into Galilee, and He found Philip. And Jesus said to him, "Follow Me."
44 Now Philip was from Bethsaida, of the city of Andrew and Peter.
45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found Him of whom Moses in the Law and also the Prophets wrote --Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
46 Nathanael said to him, "Can any good thing come out of Nazareth ?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!"
48 Nathanael said to Him, "How do You know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you."
49 Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."
50 Jesus answered and said to him, "Because I said to you that I saw you under the fig tree, do you believe? You will see greater things than these."
51 And He said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, you will see the heavens opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man." ​

Tell me, Judith, how could Jesus possibly speak to Nathaniel in this manner if He was not both omniscient and omnipresent?

 

They were still under law during the time of Christ on earth. Jesus followed the law with the woman.

 

That makes no sense what so ever.

 

John 8:28

 

Not if you don't want to understand, it doesn't. Otherwise it makes perfect sense.

... does not discuss omniscience, nor negate Jesus' omniscience. It does not make Him inferior to the Father, as does your claim that He "lost" His omniscience while in the flesh. Jesus' statement does confirm the excellence of His doctrine of obedience to God and asserts the origin, authority and divinity of that doctrine.

 

His own words prove He was not omniscienent. Jesus says in Mark 13:32 "But of that day, and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Compare with Matthew 24:36)

In these verses, Jesus said plainly that at that time, He did not know the exact timing of His second coming. But why would Christ say this if He truly was equal with His Father? An answer to this can be found in Philippians 2 verse 7, where it tells us that Jesus "made Himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men". Christ intentionally and temporarily laid aside certain elements of His power when He took on human form (Hebrews 2:14-18). We can see this all throughout the Gospels, as Christ was constantly depending upon His Father for help.
(See John 5:19 & 30)

 

You are willfully blind. I explained the passage. You don't want to understand it. You are in heresy. Good day.

 

Your theology isn't. :thumbsup:

 

Wise move on your part. :thumbs:

 

I am in heresy because I believe what the passage says instead of what you want it to mean? :laugh:

 

Says you? :laugh:

 

No, says the Bible, especially Jesus and His Apostles!