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Lordship Salvation: Is it false?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by ReformedBaptist, Aug 5, 2008.

  1. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Spirit is Spirit, the Holy Spirit. Of that there is no question.
    The question is, what does the word "water" represent?
    Verse 8 has nothing to do with answering that question.
     
  2. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    You still haven't told me what you think it means.

    peace to you:praying:
     
  3. JustChristian

    JustChristian New Member

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    You stated the problem with your position. Judas is one of the twelve.

    These men already had their salvation.


    I think it's dangerous to look at the specific group that words in the Bible are addressed to and assume that they don't apply to anyone else. You're claiming that everything Jesus said to His deciples don't apply to us?
     
    #223 JustChristian, Aug 16, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 16, 2008
  4. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    Stop the presses...are you suggesting Judas Iscariot was saved?
     
  5. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I don't think anyone is. It is naive to think that every time Jesus speaks to his disciples that he is including unsaved, simply because of the presence of Judas. That is untrue.
    For example: His disciples came to him and asked him: "Lord teach us to pray."
    And he said, "After this manner pray ye, Our Father which art in heaven."

    "Stop the presses. Are you saying that Judas can now call God as His Father!!"
    Of course not. But Jesus was speaking to the twelve as His disciples. He was directing his course of instruction to them. So it was to them then, and so it was in this passage as well. It makes no difference whether Judas was present or not. That argument is non sequitor.
     
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