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Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Harold Garvey, Dec 19, 2009.

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  1. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    Don't blame the train, blame the engineer.:laugh:
     
    #61 Mexdeaf, Dec 22, 2009
  2. Harold Garvey

    Harold Garvey New Member

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    You could blame the vandals, or maybe the N/A text for all the confusion, maybe the trolls!
     
    #62 Harold Garvey, Dec 22, 2009
  3. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    I have been unable to demonstrate that.

    I find that (the English) of (standing alone) could have been intended as composed of or belongs to or a number of other things. (See oed.com entry for of; note time line). As to the particular construction of such is - I can't show that it has the sense of possession rather than the sense of composition. Clearly, the KJV translators could have said "belongs to" (as in Mark 9:41) had they desired to.

    Can you document by example that the particular construction of such is has the meaning belongs to.
     
    #63 AntennaFarmer, Dec 22, 2009
  4. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Any guesses where this thread is going?

    I cannot for the life of me understand why grown men and mature Christians cannot discuss a topic without personalising the comments and why, once attacked, cannot ignore it and stick to the issue.
     
    #64 NaasPreacher (C4K), Dec 23, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 23, 2009
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