**NOTE: If this thread is in the wrong forum, I respectfully request the mods to move it to the proper one. I will be using the names of a fellow BB member in this OP. I do not mean this in a derogatory way. Instead I am relating what he has written, and how it relates to what I'm trying to discern.** In another thread, Brother convicted1 made this statement: I replied as such: I'm curious what other think about this notion. If man is only able to repent because God allows him to repent, this how can unrepentant man reasonably be held accountable for his sin, seeing as the means of escaping that sin was never presented to that man? I hope for reasonable, civil discussion and debate, though I do worry that some folks simply only want to rile up others.