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Man's Will, Man's Impotency, & The Gidt Of God

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by Bob Krajcik, May 19, 2005.

  1. Wes Outwest

    Wes Outwest New Member

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    Well Krajcik,
    Do you still believe that Phil 1:29 supports your contention regarding man's will?
     
  2. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    He is speaking figuratively, referring to Israel as the children of Jerusalem, not children as such.
     
  3. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    In addressing HIS WILL vs the WILL of the nation - He was speaking literally to convey the point in the most direct way possible just before the close of his ministry.

    Christ weeps over Jerusalem and shows the pathos and lament of a parent over a child. The statement is made to the city of Jerusalem as representing all Israel and the children are those who live within the city - within the nation. The "family".

    Note it makes no sense to say to a CITY "I would gather YOU" - Christ is staying within the metaphor of city as nation.

    Such a strong direct explicit statement. HOW it could be twisted to say anything other than it says about the DESIRE and WILL of God vs the rebellious WILL of HIS CHOSEN NATION - is beyond me.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  4. Wes Outwest

    Wes Outwest New Member

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    RobRyan,
    Don't forget that Jerusalem is the headquarters of the Priesthood! It was not the general population that rejected Jesus, it was the priesthood, The religious and coincidentally the political leaders of the nation of Israel that rejected Jesus.

    I think that Jesus was addressing those who were the product of a then corrupt religious system.
     
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