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Mark 16>

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by hrhema, Nov 13, 2002.

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  1. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    One mistake in interpretation comes from a poor parallel between Mark and Matthew's "great commission".

    Matthew says - Disciple, baptize, teach
    Mark says - Believe, baptize

    They are talking about TWO DIFFERENT THINGS

    Taken by itself, believe and be baptized is the man/God work we call "salvation". The "baptism" here is the work of the HS.

    Has nothing to do with Matthew's "baptism" which is water baptism.

    Conclusion: While today we don't use the "believe and be baptized" formula because of the obvious confusion with water baptism, its inclusion in the extra added verses of Mark do not cause me any difficulty.

    [ November 14, 2002, 10:44 PM: Message edited by: Dr. Bob Griffin ]
     
    #21 Dr. Bob, Nov 14, 2002
  2. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    I believe that the signs and wonders in the Bible ceased when the last book was written. When that was, I don't know. However, if they did exist today why don't these people who claim to have these gifts go the hospital and heal everyone. The truth is that if they could heal the way they did in the Bible, they would not have to go anywhere, the world would come to them.

    Don't get me wrong, I do believe in miracles, through prayer and sometimes fasting. God used those signs and wonders to help people believe, then. Now, the Bible tells us all we need to know.
     
    #22 RaptureReady, Nov 14, 2002
  3. Charlie T

    Charlie T New Member

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    In John 5:1 ff Jesus went to a hospital of sorts. A multitude of sick, blind, lame and "withered". Yet, Jesus only healed one. I think this argument is without basis.

    I also think that healing is primarily performed through effectual prayer. But, I think it unwise and disrespectful to limit God to my thoughts.

    Charlie
     
    #23 Charlie T, Nov 16, 2002
  4. Mickes

    Mickes New Member

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    I'd just like to add that I don't think the apostles would refer to Jesus as that which , Doesn't that sound a little disrespectful for a way to talk about your savoir. (hay that which is perfect is my God !! ) isn't it obvious he refers to the gifts with the word which so he would be refering to something besides a god or person with the first which. If you study the tongue movement you will find it took off with the new translations that changed this verse
     
    #24 Mickes, Nov 16, 2002
  5. Charlie T

    Charlie T New Member

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    Where do you find the Word in this passage? Here are some problems with that. The early church thought that they had all the scripture that they needed in the Old Testament. They had no idea that some day the New Testament would be put together and canonized.

    Do you really think that new translations brought about the pentecostal movement? Really? What would be the motive to change this verse in a new translation, if the movement had not started? Did the pentecostal idea cause the intentional mis-translation, or, did the mis-translation cause the pentecostal idea. Seems to be a logical flaw here. Nor, have I seen any evidence of such a relationship.

    Interesting speculation, though. :cool:

    Charlie
     
    #25 Charlie T, Nov 18, 2002
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