Some Oxford editions of the KJV printed in 1810, 1835, and 1857 have the following marginal note at Matthew 23:23 that likely came from the 1769 Oxford Bible edited by Benjamin Blayney: "Greek 'anethon' dill." D. A. Waite's DEFINED KJB has the following definition or note for anise: "plant used for spice and medicine: dill" (p. 1294). Harold Moldenke claimed: "It is very certain that the plant to which the Greek word 'anethon' here refers in not anise, but dill" (PLANTS OF THE BIBLE, p. 46). UNGER'S BIBLE DICTIONARY claimed that "the Greek 'anethon' is the exact equivalent of the Latin 'anethus,' which is the dill, and not the anise" (p. 1133). Which is the better or more accurate rendering at Matthew 23:23: anise or dill?