I posted this in another forum, whicch was MY goof. I'm now rectifying it by posting it in a thread of its own. Matthew 3:13, KJV...Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. Now, is it plain who suffered WHOM? Yet we hear no argument about who was HE & who was HIM. This is less plain in the KJV than 1 Tim. 3:16 is. Modern versions have "Him" capitalized. This is one of my main probs with the KJV. While the English nor the message is incorrect, it's simply unclear to many readers who the antecedent is in the several passages worded similarly.