The words of Scripture below are portion of a psalm David seems to have assigned Asaph to write. Other parts of this psalm in 1 Chronicles also match verses very well in the Book of Psalms. These two passages below are from the KJV and begin with precisely the same English words in the first verse shown and also end with exactly the same English words in the last two verses displayed. 1 Chronicles 16:14-22 (above) and Pslam 105:7-15 (below) with differences shown in Blue -- He [is] the LORD our God; his judgments [are] in all the earth. He [is] the LORD our God: his judgments [are] in all the earth. Be ye mindful always of his covenant; ------- the word [which] he commanded to a thousand generations; He hath remembered -- his covenant for ever, the word [which] he commanded to a thousand generations. [Even of the covenant] which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; Which [covenant] ----------- he made with Abraham, and -- his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same - to Jacob for a law, [and] to Israel [for] an everlasting covenant, And ---- confirmed the same unto Jacob for a law, [and] to Israel [for] an everlasting covenant: Saying, Unto thee will I give the land of Canaan, the lot of your inheritance; Saying, Unto thee will I give the land of Canaan, the lot of your inheritance: When - ye were -but -- few,------------------- even a few, and strangers in it. When they were [but] a few men in number; yea, very few, and strangers in it. And [when] they went from --- nation to nation, and from [one] kingdom to another people; ---- When -they went from one nation to another, -- from [one] kingdom to another people; He suffered no man to do them wrong: yea, he reproved kings for their sakes, He suffered no man to do them wrong: yea, he reproved kings for their sakes; [Saying], Touch not mine anointed, and do my prophets no harm. [Saying], Touch not mine anointed, and do my prophets no harm. I have compared the Hebrew of both passages to the best of my ability and resources. Distinctions substantiated by the Hebrew text are shown above in Black. It seems that the Hebrew is exactly the same in both books at the first pair of verses compared above. There is only one letter dissimilar in the Hebrew for the second set of verses: this one letter accounts for the the difference of "ye" and "he". Yet, there are 8 unlike words in the two KJV translations because of it. Even if "ye" and "he" excuses wholly peculiar constructions, it seems the addition of "for ever" in Psalms 105:8 is not justified by the Hebrew. There were no detectable variations in the Hebrew text between the next set of verses (1 Chronicles 16:16/Psalm 105:9). Yet, in the KJV translation there are three noticable differences: the addition of "even of the" before "covenant" in the brackets (denoting that these words are unsupported by Hebrew words); the placement of "which" before "covenant" in Psalms and after "covenant" in 1 Chronicles; and the inserted "of" in 1 Chronicles. Again, there were no detectible differences in the Hebrew text between the next set of compared verses. But notice the "hath" in 1 Chronicles that is absent in Psalms 105; and also "to" rather than "unto". There is one additional word in Psalms 105:11 that is not present in 1 Chronicles 16:18, but it seems that it is not necessary to translate it into English. I noticed one additional Hebrew letter in 1 Chronicles 16:19 when compared with Psalm 105:12, affecting the pronoun ("ye/they"). But what should we think of the many other discrepancies? Why did the king's revisers bracket their discretionary word "[but]" in Psalms but allow the appearance of "but" as translated from a Hebrew word in 1 Chronicles? Where did the words "men in number" come from? The Hebrew word for "number" is present in both books. Are "men in" the translators' stylistic words? But they are not in brackets! Are they translated from Hebrew words? If so, where? What text? Why should they not also be placed into 1 Chronicles? The first "And" of 1 Chronicles 16:20 has no underlying original language word, but the second "and" actually is present in the Hebrew text. There seems to be no translational reason to construct the Hebrew "from nation to nation" in one place and "from one nation to another" in the other place. Why is "[when]" in brackets in 1 Chronicles but not so indicated in Psalm 105? In each book there are different words in the Hebrew for "man", but since they are virtually synonymous it becomes undetected in English transaltion. The last set of two verses exhibit a one letter variation in Hebrew concerning the words for "prophet" which is not relevant in the final outcome. In summary there are about six differences in the Hebrew between the two passages; only three words should impact the English translation. Yet, the KJV exhibits 31 different words, and 2 obvious cases of inconsistant brackets (plus at least 7 differences of puncuation).