I did a bit of a search and didn't find any discussion about Micah 5:2, and I'd like to hear your thoughts on this. In the NIV, the phrase "whose goings forth have been from old, from everlasting" is different. It says, "whose origins are from of old, from ancient times." Before I start, let me set your expectation. I am not KJVO. I love the KJV and use it exclusively now, but I used the NIV for years. It wasn't until I joined an IFB church that I learned there was a controversy about MV vs. KJV. Anyway, I've heard preaching about Micah 5:2 and how the NIV translation of the verse changes doctrine. It does seem to show that the NIV is saying that Jesus Christ had an origin, meaning that he wasn't from everlasting, and thus, is not God. If so, this is a problem, obviously. It seems like a pretty good point to me, but I'm not ready to throw out the NIV just yet. What say you?