Let me see if I am getting this down correctly. The AV Anglican Version disagreed with the Greek/Hebrew. The AV Anglican Version translated a phrase/word with a different meaning. The AV Anglican Version used a dynamic phrase instead of formal equivalence. The AV Anglican Version added verses from the Vulgate that were in NO Greek text. And these are "Advanced Revelation" - God giving a NEW WORD or NEW MEANING in 1611 that was hitherto undiscerned? There are no real "errors" in the AV Anglican Version because they are straightening out/clarifying the message for us today? My mouth is hanging open on that one. Someone explain the (1) logic and (2) Scriptural support for that steaming pile??