DHK has brought up an interesting point. It centers around the questions of moral and civil law and if in fact all violations of civil law are violations of moral law. Here was DHK’s comment. My position is that they are not one in the same, and that I can indeed break civil law without being in violation of moral law at least ‘at some times.’ He has mentioned the speed limits for instance. I can think of numerous instances that I can violate the demands of civil law without the least moral guilt whatsoever. I am NOT advocating disobedience to civil law or stating that I do not attempt to abide by traffic laws. Just the same, I can indeed be in violation of civil law without violating any moral command or law of God. How about you? What is your position?