Here is another passage from Dr Dabney's Systematic Theology that needs to be looked at. "This seems, then, to be the candid conclusion: that there is no passage in the Bible which asserts an intention to apply redemption to any others than the elect, on the part of God and Christ; but that there are passages which imply that Christ died for all sinners in some sense, as Dr Ch. Hodge has so expressly admitted. Certainly the expiation made by Christ is so related to all, irrespective of election, that God can sincerely all to enjoy its benefits, that every soul in the world who desires salvation is warranted to appropiate it; and that even a Judas, had he come in earnest, would ne have been cast out" (p. 527) I am yet to get a Calvinist to exaplain, in what "sense" did Jesus die for the whole world? I have heard that it relates to the whole world enjoying the benefits of the sun and rain, of food, etc. But this hold no weight. It is foolish to assume that the death of Jesus was the cause of this, since these things have been around since the creation. Some have suggested that one of the benefits is that sin has been restrained. Really? The reality is that sin is on the increase all over the world, and the Bible says that wickedness will rise before the Second Coming. Interesting to note Dabney say in the opening of this passage, that redemption is only for the elect. He then goes on to say that the "expiation" made by Jesus is so realted to "every soul in the world", so that if they "desire salvation", all they have to do is to "appropiate it". And, even Judas, if he had so desired, could have been saved. Language that certainly spaeks of "Unlimited Atonement". This is what I believe, that the "expiation" (to atone for fully, - Oxford), of Jesus Christ does in a sense relate to every soul in the world, in that He had died for them. This "Atonement" which Chirst has made, has to be "appropiated", for it to become effective in the sinner's life. If, its extent includes Judas, had he desired to "appropiate" salvation, then, Jesus would have had to have died for Judas as well. It does not matter that Judas did not, and maybe even would not, have desired to "appropiate" the Atonement of Christ. The very fact that he "could of", can only be understood that even he had to be included in the death of Jesus Christ. Otherwise this whole reasoning of Dabney is a waste of time.