It's usually to scarey in this forum for me, but my dad made a comment the other day that I'd like opinions on. The comment was: those who translated the KJV were inspired by God and those who have translated later versions were not as inspired or were simply more distracted by worldly ties to pay as close attention to what they were translating. I have since recovered from my faint and now wonder just how/why someone could get this idea? My dad did give some justification for his opinion that at the time King James had the Bible translated that the polictical atmosphere was such that the translators were not pressured from any particular side to "translate" the scripture to suit certain ideals(or something to that effect). Not being a Biblical historian, I have no idea if this was the case or not. Of course I do know where to come for help. Thanks in advance.