Must A Modern Bible Go the Inclusive renderings Approach?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by JesusFan, Dec 30, 2011.

  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan
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    As inclusive seems to be the "flavor of the Month"...

    IF a Bible commitee refuses to buy into that, does that make it "behind the times, inferior?"
     
  2. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate
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    I sincerely hope not.
    That would be about the only thing that could drive me back to the KJV.

    Steve
     
  3. Rippon

    Rippon
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    Using the word must is a bit too strong. But asking if modern Bible versions should use more inclusive language than the KJV -- of course. The 84 NIV,current ESV,HCSB all use more inclusive language than the KJV.

    It's like asking: Should modern Bible translations use natural English? Certainly so.
     
  4. jaigner

    jaigner
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    When the text means "male persons," "men" should be used. When the text means "male and female persons," "men and women" or something similar should be used.
     
  5. JesusFan

    JesusFan
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    The NASB is widely regarded as being the best modern version to study from, IF accurancy to the greek/hebrew is required...

    believes that the NASB has the least amount of inclusive in it, does that make it an inferior/bad translation?
     
  6. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate
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    The English word 'man' has for hundreds of years been understood to encompass both male and female persons unless the context demands otherwise. It is only in the last 25 or so years that people have suddenly become so difficult about it.

    Take John 3:3.

    KJV. 'Unless a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.'

    The Greek word translated 'a man' is tis, which means 'someone' or 'anyone.' It is in the masculine Gender but obviously refers to both men and women. The KJV is really just as obvious, but the NKJV tries to improve.

    NKJV.'Unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.'

    This is not really any more politically correct since it still has 'he' in it.

    NIV, 1984. 'No one can see the kingdom of God unless he is born again.'

    This inverts the order of the sentence for no good reason and still has the dreaded 'he' in it.

    NIV, 2011. 'No one can see the kingdom of God unless they are born again.'

    Political correctness is now achieved, but at the expense of good grammar. Also, singular is now changed to plural. Do we have the right to do that? The Lord Jesus used the singular: 'Unless an individual is born again.' Our Lord's words are being mucked about with in order to satisfy a bunch of feminists who probably hate God and hate the Bible. Why are we bothering?

    Actually, I don't know why the NIV feministas didn't try, 'No one can see the kingdom of God without being born again.' It's not great, but it avoids the frontal assualt on English grammar and avoids the plural.

    A few random houghts.

    Steve
     
  7. JesusFan

    JesusFan
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    Could this either be dueo the "dumbing down" of the current generation of Bible readers, as we went through poor education regarding proper English and/or Christian Feminism getting traction in the church, as we have bough the ole "Bible wriiten from male perspective toomuch, due to its cultural background?"
     

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