In our previous thread about what the king saw I was involved in a stimulating (and positive) discussion with stilllearning about the translation used in the Daniel passage under review. In one of my last responses I opened up a challenge to him but the thread was closed before he could reply. So I wanted to resubmit this challenge (and open it up to anyone): My contention is that the KJV mistranslates the passage because it is based on less than contemporary scholarship. This doesn't make the KJV inferior but shows some of its shortcomings (ALL translations have shortcomings.) So what say you on the board? My original reply can be seen here: http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1713336&postcount=89 This post is in good nature and I am interested to see what we have to say.