nasb bible

Thus saith the final authority... Homebound's unsubstantiated opinion.

 

He thinks he did... he referenced his final authority, his own mind, and it said that the KJV was the standard.

 

Proof please? Where (chapter and verse) does any Bible say that any of these - NASB, ESV, NKJV, KJV(1769), AV1611, GENEVA, TYNDALE'S NT, NIV, NLT, HCSB - is a counterfiet? </font>[/QUOTE]Believing that the King James Bible is the standard, and the rest is not is my proof. </font>[/QUOTE]I guess the rest is history!

 

Wow, that's the most factual, well-thought-out evidence I've ever seen in regards to this issue. To be honest, statements like this are what drove me away from the KJVO position.

 

Homebound:Why waste good quality time looking at a counterfeit when you can look at the real thing.

Why beat yourself up driving a Model-T made for the roads of 1910 when, for less money, you can drive a new Taurus made for today's highways?

Why read only a Model-T bible when there are several modern "Taurus" editions available?

 

My new Holman Christian Standard Bible is a Beamer - it would be a Ferrari if it had maps and cross references.

 

Homebound:Believing that the King James Bible is the standard, and the rest is not is my proof.

Which begs the question:ON WHAT FACTS is your "proof" based?

I could believe the moon is made of cheese cuz it's full of holes & it's cheese-colored. I could believe General Motors fought in the Civil War cuz Mad Magazine said so. I could believe Collie Flower is my mutt's fave veggie becuz of its name. I could believe many things, but I believe NOTHING without PROOF.

I believe the KJV became the "standard" for 17th century English readers, through the power & authority of the English Crown & the Anglican Church. The proof is in every history book & encyclopedia article dealing with the history of the Bible in English. the proof of the veracity of those articles lies in their sources, the extant writings of English users from the 1600s to the recent past.

Now, where's YOUR proof that the KJV is the only valid Bible of the English-using world of today?

 

Looks as if that little question, "PROOF, PLEASE?" has once again has stumped the KJVOs.

 

What are FACTS? Do they exist? The KJVO facts are already given.

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The King James Bible has been around for over 400+ years claiming that it alone is the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God and I think that has some weight as it being the word of God preserved.

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The King James Bible has been around for over 400+ years claiming that it alone is the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God and I think that has some weight as it being the word of God preserved. </font>[/QUOTE]Along with its textual variants too? So you say that nobody had a Bible until the 1611 KJV translation of the Bible came about?

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.</font>[/QUOTE] Please point out in these verses where it says "KJV, KJB, AV, 1611, 1769, etc.". If these verses were dealing with the preservation of words (which it isn't), those words would have been Hebrew, not English. None of the Psalmists spoke English.

I have read the KJV from cover to cover... please show me the scripture I missed that makes this claim.

 

Using that logic however, we could also claim that the Latin Vulgate which was around centuries before the KJV is alone the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God. Too make such claims about any translation being the only Word of God in print and all others are counterfeits is idolatry and one must confess that the KJV translators had the charismatic gifts like the Bible writers. It also would seem to mean that KJV Only's would have to believe the Church of England was able to in some sense to translate the KJV with an "ex cathedra" type of authority. Maybe we should all be Episcopalians if that is the case!

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The King James Bible has been around for over 400+ years claiming that it alone is the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God and I think that has some weight as it being the word of God preserved. </font>[/QUOTE]Preserved forever? Newsflash: The KJV didn't exist in 1610. Does 1610 include "forever"?

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The King James Bible has been around for over 400+ years claiming that it alone is the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God and I think that has some weight as it being the word of God preserved. </font>[/QUOTE]Along with its textual variants too? So you say that nobody had a Bible until the 1611 KJV translation of the Bible came about? </font>[/QUOTE]No, what I am saying is that when the King James Bible was published, it was/is the final authority.

1 Cor 13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

 

Psalm 12:6 The words of the LORD [are] pure words: [as] silver tried in a
furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

The King James Bible has been around for over 400+ years claiming that it alone is the inspired, infallible, inerrant word of God and I think that has some weight as it being the word of God preserved. </font>[/QUOTE]Along with its textual variants too? So you say that nobody had a Bible until the 1611 KJV translation of the Bible came about? </font>[/QUOTE]No, what I am saying is that when the King James Bible was published, it was/is the final authority.

1 Cor 13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. </font>[/QUOTE]So none of the original inspired manuscripts would have even qualified? I always thought the inspired originals were the first and final suthority.

 

So, the originals weren't perfect? What about The Great Bible? Geneva? Matthews? Coverdales? Bishops? You, or any other KJVO, has yet to really prove any errors in those. They are just as perfect as the KJV - which wipes out your theory. It doesn't matter what you wish to believe, God didn't call it quits in 1611 or 1769.

 

Homebound wrote:

Homebound, does the word "context" mean anything to you?:

Main Entry: con·text
Pronunciation: 'kän-"tekst
Function: noun
Etymology: Middle English, weaving together of words, from Latin contextus connection of words, coherence, from contexere to weave together, from com- + texere to weave -- more at TECHNICAL
1 : the parts of a discourse that surround a word or passage and can throw light on its meaning
2 : the interrelated conditions in which something exists or occurs : ENVIRONMENT, SETTING
- con·text·less /-"tekst-l&s/ adjective
- con·tex·tu·al /kän-'teks-ch&-w&l, k&n-, -ch&l/ adjective
- con·tex·tu·al·ly adverb

Consider reading this chapter of 1 Cor. in full; or looking at a good commentary, to discover what this verse is really talking about.

 

Wow!

So the Holy Spirit when He inspired Paul to write the letter to the church at Corinth was looking ahead to 1611 and only to English speaking people to bring about a "perfect" Bible. With this type of interpretation of Scripture KJVOism is easily seen for what it is. A belief system that has NO biblical support.

Bro Tony

 

Homebound:No, what I am saying is that when the King James Bible was published, it was/is the final authority.

So no one had any final authority till 1611? Are you saying JESUS had no final authority from His Father when He said, "Scripture cannot be broken"? And that He had no final authority when, in His parable about the rich man & Lazarus the beggar, He said, "They have Moses & the prophets"? And that He had no final authority when He repeatedly told the devil, "It ie WRITTEN..."?

1 Cor 13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

Duh...Sir...Might I suggest you read the WHOLE CHAPTER to see just exactly what(or WHOM) "that which is perfect" is? Ripping a verse outta context to try to prove something which isn't there just won't cut it.