National or Universal application

Discussion in 'Calvinism/Arminianism Debate' started by The Biblicist, Aug 15, 2015.

  1. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist
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    Nov 13, 2011
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    Some on this forum have argued that John 6 and John 12 are primarily nationalistic (Jewish) in application and have reference primarily to the national rejection of Jesus Christ while having perhaps a limited non-Jewish application.

    I suggest the very opposite. John 6 and John 12 are universal (all nations and classes of mankind) in application while having a limited national application for the following reasons:

    1. There is explicit universal applications instead of national applications:

    a. John 6:37-40 uses universal language "all" "of all" "whosoever"
    b. John 6:39,40,44,54 all refer to a universal resurrection instead of a
    national resurrection of the righteous
    c. John 6:44 uses universal language "no man can"
    d. John 12:20-32 is found in a Gentile context (v. 20) and universal
    application ("all men" - v. 32).

    2. A universal truth is naturally applied to the immediate audience (Jewish in John 6; Gentile in John 12:20-32).

    3. There is no eternal salvation through the person and work of Christ that is restricted to one nation but is rather universal (Jew and Gentile) and applied to one nation.

    a. The "all" and "of all" and "whosoever" in John 6:37-40 is not due to a limited "will" of the Father to merely Jews in John 6:38-39b.

    b. Drawing by the Father is not limited to merely Jews by the Father in John 6:44-45 but is equally applied to Gentiles (Jn. 12:20, 32).

    CONCLUSION: Jesus is merely applying UNIVERSAL truths of salvation to the immediate audiance which is Jewish in John 6 but which is Gentile in John 12:20-32.

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