Keith M made a statement that..........."Older texts are closer in time to the original autographs. Therefore, as time went on and more and more copies and copies of copies were made, the newer texts had more errors and insertions than the older texts." Can anyone provide PROOF of that, since Keith seems to be avoiding the question? Although it's amazing to me that he just started a thread asking someone else to provide proof for their statement, when he won't do the same. BTW, people's OPINIONS are not PROOF.