We feel that the King James Version Bible represents the best English translation from the original Hebrew and Greek texts. Other so called Bibles like the NIV(New International Version) are based on flawed texts, and we believe have many "errors" in their translations. While we don't formulate any doctrine on just one verse, we do feel the following represents an easily recognizable flaw in the NIV (I won't call it a Bible). We could compare hundreds of versus between the KJV and the NIV and show you where the meaning has been changed, but the following is a stand-alone check of the NIV. I think you'll find this interesting: In the NIV, Matthew 5:22 states: Matthew 5:22 But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell. This says that ANYONE who is angry with his brother is subject to judgment, or in other words, anyone who is angry is guilty of sin (if no sin is involved, there would be no reason for judgment). Now we look at Mark 3:3-5 in the NIV: Mark 3:3-5 Jesus said to the man with the shriveled hand, "Stand up in front of everyone." 4 Then Jesus asked them, "Which is lawful on the Sabbath: to do good or to do evil, to save life or to kill?" But they remained silent. 5 He looked around at them in anger and, deeply distressed at their stubborn hearts, said to the man, "Stretch out your hand." He stretched it out, and his hand was completely restored. Versus 3 and 4 are included to show that Jesus is speaking here. In verse 5, we see that Jesus was angry. So, between the combination of Matthew 5:22 and Mark 3:5 the NIV states that Jesus is a sinner. Thus, the NIV has a major flaw in and of itself. No comparison with other versions is needed to make the NIV a flawed text. If it has one proven flaw, how can you trust any other verse in the book? Further, if you don't believe this to be a flaw, I'd like to know what you are basing your salvation on? There is an NIV note on Matthew 5:22 that states "Some manuscripts brother without cause". This tells us that they knowingly left it out, and it was not an oversight (intent really doesn't matter, but it is interesting that they left this out on purpose). Just in case you are interested, let's look at the same two verses in the King James: Matthew 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire. Mark 3:3-5 And he saith unto the man which had the withered hand, Stand forth. 4 And he saith unto them, Is it lawful to do good on the sabbath days, or to do evil? to save life, or to kill? But they held their peace. 5 And when he had looked round about on them with anger, being grieved for the hardness of their hearts, he saith unto the man, Stretch forth thine hand. And he stretched it out: and his hand was restored whole as the other. "Anger without cause" is clearly different than "anger". In the KJV, Jesus is not made out to be a sinner. Perhaps you may not know that many of the other "versions" of the Bible in English, while not going by the term NIV, also are derived from the same fatally flawed translations. An easy way to determine if a Bible is from the KJV originals or some other translation is to check Genesis 1:1. Watch for the word heaven or heavens and see. NIV: Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. KJV: Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. This is a pretty good litmus test.