I find these accusations all the time in addition to the false statement that the NKJV ignores the TR in 1200 places. so lets take a look at a few of these. The NKJV omits "hell" numerous times. The places where the NKJV doesn't have hell, they have transliterated the word. Therefore the NKJV will have "hades" which is the Greek word. They do this to show a difference in the meanings of the terms. The term "hell" in the KJV doesn't always mean the lake of fire. The NKJV omits "blood" numerous times In many of the places, the NKJV has a very similar word. In Ex. 22:2, the KJV has "shed blood" while the nkjv has "bloodshed." Of course the word "blood" isn't there technically, but what is there is a word that is a combination of the two terms. The NKJV doesn't remove the term blood in places where it is dealing with the blood of Christ. The NKJV omits "Lord" numerous times The NKJV doesn't use the term "lord" when it's not referring to God. Example: NKJV “A disciple is not above his teacher, nor a servant above his master" KJV "The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord" Notice that in the KJV, the word "lord" is with a small letter 'L' because it's not referring to the Lord Jesus Christ. The NKJV doesn't use the term "lord" here as to reserve that term for the Lord Jesus. The statement that the NKJV has the term "lord" fewer times is correct, but very misleading. These are just 3 examples of misleading statements people have given. Of course I'm still waiting for an example of the 1200 alleged times the NKJV ignores the TR.