Okay, according to the editors and publishers of the NKJV they claimed it was translated from the same "received text", "Messionic text", etc. etc. as the old KJV. The KJVO's say "NO WAY"..... I figured it was actually marketed as a way to get a KJVO (who was obviously not a Ruckmanite) to consider using it based on the source documents. Okay, who is right. The publishers or the KJVO crowd? KJVO -- U are welcome to answer, too. But, I also want to hear from the non-KJVO crowd. In reality, I would like a little detailed reality about the background of the NKJV. Jump on in, its gonna get deep!