...no one can say, "Jesus is Lord", except...

I realize you are talking about Rom 1:19-21, but where do you come by this bolded assertion? How was Job saved? or Elihu?

Truth is, Rom 1 states the "everlasting gospel" as the revelation of the Godhead that man either "knows, gives glory to, and thanks" OR rejects and turns to paganism. There are both options available and those who reject are, thereby, "without excuse."

BTW, that is the OT, pre-law means of salvation. You will notice often back then that the Spirit could speak through "common" grace without "regenerating" anyone.

skypair

 

Paul spends three chapters on this subject. One of his purposes was to correct the abuse of the spiritual gifts, that is the way that they were being used. He also explains to them there usefulness, their purpose, etc. Three chapters! That is more time on this one subject than he spends on the resurrection in chapter 15, that "jeweled chapter" of the Bible, the crux of our very faith.

The rest of chapter 12 (from verse 4 onward) is a different paragraph, and a different subject. In those introductory verses Paul deals with a specific problem before he gets into the meat of the issue of spiritual gifts which he then begins with listing them. This doesn't seem to have anything to do with that. It is separate. He takes time to correct a specific problem first.

This kind of logic is absurd.
If all the demons praised God, what a wonderful world it would be. There would be no need to "resist the devil," to "flee from him." "he is a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour whom resist steadfast in the faith." Why, if Satan is simply praising God along with his demons, let us lay down our spiritual armament (Eph.6:11-18), and rejoice, for there is no more battle against Satan. He is not going to bother us again.
Your theology there, quite frankly is a joke.
The Corinthians were in a spiritual battle!

Absolutely right. Any unsaved person can mouth those words. I can even get a Muslim to do that even though he is so anti-Christ. These people were cursing Christ under the power of another spirit. They were being controlled by another spirit, and their speech (in a tongue, another language) was being recognized by some who knew that language--whether by supernatural gift or by knowledge. It was an abuse of the gift of languages and it was a carry-over from their pagan past which Paul refers to in verse two. There are many pagan religions (including the Mormons) who speak in tongues.

That may be so in the rest of the chapter, but it is not the purpose here in verses two and three.

It is a contrast. Some were saying Jesus is accursed by another spirit.
Some were praising Christ by the power of the Holy Spirit just like it happened in Acts chapter two.

Acts 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
--It was praise; not cursing.

The purpose of tongues was never to lead a person to Christ. It was not to show the way of salvation. It had nothing to do with salvation.
This very basic concept was that some were speaking by another spirit that Jesus was accursed--it was by a demonic spirit. Why else would they say that?
Some were saying that Jesus is Lord. It was by the Holy Spirit, under the control of the Holy Spirit through speaking in tongues as they did in Acts 2.

Paul deals with a specific problem before going into the matter of spiritual tongues. He must get this out of the way first.

Then I challenge you to give objective evidence where the sign gifts of miracles, healing, or languages is being exercised today.
Even the Charismatics have to learn foreign languages before going to the mission field. Don't you find that odd. Tongues, just like your "mother tongue," were actual languages--other languages (tongues), but real nonetheless.

 

Yes, Paul deals with tongues in all three chapters: 12, 13, and all throughout 14. There is not one of these chapters that he does not mention the gift of tongues. As he speaks of tongues at the end of chapter 12, I see no reason not to believe that he may be referring to tongues at the beginning of the chapter, especially as he relates this to their pagan background in verse two. You keep referring to Christian unity. How is Paul referring to unity by referring to paganism? That just doesn't fit does it? In fact their pagan background is the exact opposite of Christian unity. Paganism opposes Christian unity. That is the background that they came out of it. Some of them reverted back to it, and the result was speak in pagan tongues that cursed Christ.

1 Corinthians 12:2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led.
--And this verse contributes to Christian unity HOW??

Yes he does, but that is not the subject of the fist three verses, and has nothing to do with the first three verses.

Your premise is absurd.
Satan does not glorify God. That is not a scriptural premise.
He did so when Christ walked the face of the earth to attest to the deity of Christ. For Christ had power over the demons and Satan. They were compelled to. Likewise in the presence of Paul they were compelled to do the same. But what happened when others tried to confront demons:

Acts 19:15-16 And the evil spirit answered and said, Jesus I know, and Paul I know; but who are ye?
16 And the man in whom the evil spirit was leaped on them, and overcame them, and prevailed against them, so that they fled out of that house naked and wounded.
--Evil spirits do not praise God. That position is ludicrous. It just doesn't happen today. They are evil vile spirits that like nothing more than to spit in the face of God with the most vile, wicked language possible. Satan's deceived purpose which he has never deviated from is to unseat God. Barring that he will do everything possible to keep others from serving him, and if possible will get them to curse him. He succeeded in the church at Corinth.

Chapter and verse please.
I quoted you Scripture showing you that was not the case. They spoke forth "the wonderful works of God," not repentance, not the gospel. You must be able to demonstrate what you claim through Scripture.
The purpose of tongues was to be a sign for the unbelieving Jews (1Cor.14:21,22)
Three times tongues are mentioned in the Book of Acts. All three times there were Jews present. It was a sign for the Jews. That was its primary purpose. There were some other minor purposes, but that is the primary purpose of tongues. By the end of the first century, tongues had ceased, for the Jews did not listen or take heed to that sign and judgment from God fell upon the Jewish nation when the Roman general, Titus came and destroyed the Temple, and Israel was once again scattered as a nation.

Then give evidence of any of the sign being in existence today. Try healing. Compare it to Acts 5:16 where Peter healed All who came to him, no one excluded.

He can, but he doesn't. He doesn't speak through burning bushes either.
He doesn't wrestle with man like he did with Jacob either.
He doesn't walk in fiery furnaces with man like he did with the three Hebrew children either.
Study Hebrews 1:1,2. He speaks to us through his son, who is revealed to us through his Word--not through spiritual gifts.