When debating Calvinists I too often here them quote Romans 3 where Paul said, "There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands, no one who seeks God." They quote this as if it proves their contention that because no one is righteous according to the law that no one can be declared righteous through faith either. They wrongly seem to equate the righteousness which people of that day believed came by observing the law with righteousness, apart from the law, which comes through faith in Christ, who fulfilled the law on our behalf. Paul explain this distinction if one continues to read the entire context of Romans 3: "Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe." Now, on what basis do Calvinists equate the inability of man to be righteous observing the law with their contention regarding men's inability to be credited as righteous through faith in Christ? IOW, does man's inability to be righteous through observing the law prove his inability to be righteous through faith in the one who fulfilled the law on our behalf? If so, where in scripture is that taught?