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Featured Non-cal view

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by agedman, Dec 31, 2013.

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  1. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Ok, we are into the pages, and yet there is a non-cal who has addressed the basic issues of the OP.

    "Non-cals, do not generally consider the will as constricted and obligatory to the forces of nature (desire, motives, impulses, needs (both physical and psychological, ...) and can make some kind of decision in which the forces of nature do not oblige." ​

    Non-cals, in the matter salvation, support that it is done from their own innate freedom of choice derived from the some innate ability given to all men.

    "... The non-cal points to the decision as "free will" yet seems to discard that all such decisions will in fact conform to the nature. That no decisions of consequence can be made that do not conform to the demands of the nature."

    Hence the basic thinking of the contra causal free will - a decision can be made outside of causal influences including that of desire and need based motivators that impact physical and psychological aspects. Those that want to limit the contra causal free will choice to only surface items (such as a decision a person might make in what food to eat) are practicing an avoidance as to the end results.

    "Therefore, the non-cals must make some human constructs such as "prevenient grace" and "progressive sanctification" in order for some scheme of salvation to be developed."

    Well documented in the teaching of nearly every non-cal assembly.

    "However, even in such schemes, the emphasis always returns to God being the initiator, and that the will of humankind must by some miraculous work of God be "awakened" to the need of Christ; and during that ethereal suspended state between earthly and heavenly, the person has some "freedom of the will" to make a decision for or against salvation."

    So, based upon the OP, what non-cal will really address how their view agrees or disagrees, why, and what Scriptures they may present.
     
    #21 agedman, Dec 31, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 31, 2013
  2. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    This is all mumbo jumbo to me, you'll have to get an answer from someone else.
     
  3. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    So, you would agree that you can from your own innate volition with no influence or outside impulse choose righteousness?

    "The choice is still mine" statement would be secure in the belief that you "have the free will to make any decision" even that of salvation?

    That "I have the free will to make any decision" extends over all matters of physical and psychological aspects we would commonly hold as basic needs, desires, and motives in which life itself is dependent?

    Using the illustration from the OP, can you solely by your "freedom of will" refuse to breath - ever, or will the body compel you to breath by overriding the "freedom of the will" with practical survival needs?
     
  4. preacher4truth

    preacher4truth Active Member

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    So after you choose which path to take, what does God do?
     
  5. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    He allows the natural consequences of my decision to be realized. For example, I can choose to smoke cigarettes; I cannot choose whether or not to get lung cancer. I can choose to neglect my Bible reading; I cannot choose whether or not my spiritual health will suffer.
     
  6. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    I saw nothing. If you will look in the top right hand corner of each post you will see a number. If you click on that it will open a new page with just that single post. Please post those single posts so I can be sure of the posts you are characterizing in your own way.
     
  7. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Adam and Eve chose sin - with sinless natures.

    Lucifer chose sin -- with a sinless nature.

    Fallen man is "drawn to God" as Christ said "I will draw ALL mankind unto Me" John 12:32 - which even Calvinists will admit - enables the choice to accept the Gospel.

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  8. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    No, and I don't know any non-Cal that believes this.

    No, the acceptance of the offer of salvation can only be made with direct influence of the Holy Spirit.

    Not over ALL, but certainly over some. If someone wants to lose weight they may choose to give up high calorie foods. A soldier may decide to give his life to save fellow soldiers. A woman may decide to give birth rather than have an abortion.

    People commit suicide on a daily basis, some by voluntarily drowning themselves.
     
  9. Inspector Javert

    Inspector Javert Active Member

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  10. Inspector Javert

    Inspector Javert Active Member

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  11. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    If the fallen nature "IS" enmity against God (Rom. 8:7 and "IS" is a state of being verb) and Paul claims that this is the explanation why all those "in the flesh CANNOT please God" (Rom. 8:8 and seeking or coming to Him by faith is necessary to "please God" Heb. 11:6), then how is man free to do what is inherently contrary to His own state of being - seek God? Isn't that like saying man is free to choose to fly or free to choose to stop breathing?

    For a man to be free to choose to fly would not that require a radical change of his very nature? If "enmity against God" is the condition/state of the fallen nature, then how does man act contrary to that condition without a radical change of what that IS? How can he will to choose to seek God unless that very CONDITION is altered, any more than how can he choose to fly unless the very CONDITION of his nature is radically altered??

    Simply asserting the gospel is the power of God to salvation does not address the issue of HOW something that is in radical opposition to God and the gospel is altered as we have our explanation of that HOW as much as you do.

    You must explain how the gospel only TEMPORARILY and CONDITIONALLY alters "enmity" so as to make such a contrary choice to what man "IS" by nature without changing what He "IS" by nature because such a CHANGE is called the NEW BIRTH in scriptures.
     
  12. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Man is more than flesh.

    Mat 26:41 Watch and pray, that ye enter not into temptation: the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak.

    Note that Jesus distinguishes between the spirit and the flesh. His disciples in the spirit were quite willing to obey his commands and pray, but their flesh was very weak and caused them to fall asleep.

    Romans 8 is speaking of man when he obeys his flesh. In the flesh he cannot obey or please God. That does not mean that in his spirit a man cannot be willing to obey God. Matthew 26:41 in fact proves he can be willing.

    This is what Paul is describing in Romans 7:14-25. This cannot be Paul speaking from the perspective of a born again Christian as he said he was "sold under sin" and was brought into "captivity to the law of sin". Paul had already told us that a Christian has been made free from sin and the law of sin.

    Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.

    Rom 6:17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.
    18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.

    Rom 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

    In addition, Paul never mentions the Holy Spirit in Romans 7, not once. So Paul is speaking from the perspective of an unconverted man under the law. In this state he was quite willing to obey God, but was brought into subjection of the flesh.

    Rom 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.
    15 For that which I do I allow not: for what I would, that do I not; but what I hate, that do I.
    16 If then I do that which I would not, I consent unto the law that it is good.
    17 Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
    18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not.
    19 For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do.
    20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
    21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
    22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
    23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
    24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
    25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.

    Paul did not hate the law before he was converted, he was a Pharisee. He tried his best to obey the law at all times. But his flesh warred against his mind and brought him into captivity to the law of sin.

    Only when a person is saved have they been made free from sin and the law of sin. They are no longer under the law, but under grace.
     
    #32 Winman, Jan 1, 2014
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  13. Inspector Javert

    Inspector Javert Active Member

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    #33 Inspector Javert, Jan 1, 2014
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  14. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    No, both are equally inherent aspects of nature that are either present or absent due to the condition of nature.

    The will provides no ability to fly and so choice to do so is mute because the inability to fly is not a problem of will but a problem of physical ability. However, in the case of "enmity" the problem of inability is the will as the very term "mind" in Romans 8:7 refers to the "mind set" or the will in action. So what reverses this negative action of the will toward God from "enmity against God" to submission to God? That is the nature of change which is necessary to reverse the inclination of the will from "against" God to "for" God.


    There is "none that seeketh after God, no, not one" - so that is Paul's view not merely my view.


    I was merely responding to how you used both in your previous post. This is not my view. Now, you are making distinctions you previously did not make in your previous post. I agree the two are not compatible.


    Because the problem of the fallen nature responding positively to God involves the inclination of the will. In fallen man the "mind set" or the will in action "IS" enmity against God (Rom. 8:7) and that is Paul's explanation why those "in the flesh CANNOT please God" (Rom. 8:8) and do not "seek" God (Rom. 3:12) because of what fallen man "IS" rather than what he DOES.

    So the fundemental problem of Arminianism is that seeking God can only occur by changing what fallen man "IS" in regard to the inclination of his will, which is "enmity AGAINST God." As long as the human will 'IS" against God due to enmity there can be no willing submission to God, seeking God or desire to "please God" (Rom. 8:8).

    The problem of inability in regard to flying is a PHYSICAL inability. In order for man to fly there must be a radical change in his PHYSICAL nature. In regard to seeking (willingness to pursue) after God or willingness to submit to God the problem of inability is found in the will of fallen man itself, which is "AGAINST" God due to "enmity." That is the "mindset" of the flesh which IS the will in action - negative action "against God." Therefore, in order for man to choose to seek or submit to God there must be a radical change in his VOLITIONAL nature which removes "enmity" that moves the will "against God."

    You claim "prevenient grace" is the answer. However, no such language can be found in scripture. If you insist the meaning can be found in scripture in regard to the fallen mindset then you must provide scripture that clearly teaches that preveniet grace changes what it "IS" (against God due to enmity) to something other than what it "IS" but yet short of new birth change. Jesus speaks of only two possible options (bad tree versus good tree) rather than a third intermediate option that prevenient grace demands.
     
  15. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Part of the OP expressed that such schemes as "prevenient grace" are human inventions applied to Scriptures to explain the non-cal view as viable. (It is acknowledged that some Cal's do have this thinking, also)

    However, such assignment of grace is not found in Scriptures. The "prevenient grace" scheme is only found by taking some Scriptures and superimposing that "temporary" ethereal state upon a person. Not one place, in which actual conversion experiences are shown in the Scriptures, is there such a condition to be found.

    When one takes the Scriptures stripped of human inventive items such as the preceding (or prevenient) grace, the non-cal schemes are shown to be completely bogus.

    The illustration of the OP suggests that in which some radical psychological and physical change must take place to accomplish what is by nature impossible. Therefore, it is by example of the physical realm a demonstration of the change in which is imparted to the believer. That which by human contrivance cannot be attained.

    Look carefully at Paul's statement in which the "mercies of God" are put into effect:
    1Therefore I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your spiritual service of worship. 2And do not be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, so that you may prove what the will of God is, that which is good and acceptable and perfect.

    Surely there is not a slightest hint of human innate freedom of will in that statement.

    The course of this world obliges conformity to this world and "transformation" by the sole authority of God must take place.

    The non-cal views just aren't Scripturally supported.

    The Scriptures state:

    “THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS, NOT EVEN ONE;
    11
    THERE IS NONE WHO UNDERSTANDS,
    THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD;
    12ALL HAVE TURNED ASIDE, TOGETHER THEY HAVE BECOME USELESS;
    THERE IS NONE WHO DOES GOOD,
    THERE IS NOT EVEN ONE.”
    13“THEIR THROAT IS AN OPEN GRAVE,
    WITH THEIR TONGUES THEY KEEP DECEIVING,”
    “THE POISON OF ASPS IS UNDER THEIR LIPS”;
    14“WHOSE MOUTH IS FULL OF CURSING AND BITTERNESS”;
    15“THEIR FEET ARE SWIFT TO SHED BLOOD,
    16DESTRUCTION AND MISERY ARE IN THEIR PATHS,
    17AND THE PATH OF PEACE THEY HAVE NOT KNOWN.”
    18THERE IS NO FEAR OF GOD BEFORE THEIR EYES.”
    That Romans passage in which Paul is quoting from the psalms, the proverbs, Isaiah,... is the state of the unsaved. Paul didn't just use a single verse, but showed the consistency of the non-believer as totally at enmity against God.

    There is no prevenient grace "seeking for God" state to be found imposed upon any unbeliever, that they might, of some freedom from all impulse toward good and evil, "accept" God - the unbeliever is condemned already.

    Does Christ draw? Certainly - that is not "prevenient grace" it is the consequence of the Cross. Just the same as "Every knee shall bow..." is also a consequence of the Cross.

    Prevenient grace is a human contrivance attempting to justify the unrighteousness of the non-cal views - such thinking displays not just the weakness of the non-cal, but shows the willingness to accept extra Biblical schemes to fatally prop up what is fraudulent.
     
  16. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    These verses do not support inability whatsoever, they simply state a fact.

    If I were to say that none of my neighbors ever goes to church, no, not one, would you understand that to mean they were unable to go to church? No! No reasonable person would understand my statement to mean my neighbors were unable to go to church, but simply stating the fact that they do not go to church. You are reading inability into scripture when it is not there.

    There is not one word supporting inability in those scriptures.
     
  17. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    I do not believe God is concerned with the free will of man. Not sure if free will of man is even a part of the picture.

    Why did God create man? Why did God create man in the image of God? Why did God make the help meet for the man from the man created in his image?
    Was the help meet so required in order for Gal. 4:4 to take place for the redemption spoken of in 4:5? Does the God need for us to do anything to bring about his works known from the beginning of the world?
    Acts 15:18 Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.

    Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers; But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you, 1 Peter 1:18-20


    Why before he was created, was there going to be a need for redemption?

    Was he going to need redemption from himself or from some source apart from the man to be created?

    Is it about God and man or is God through a being created in his image, man, doing battle with another adversary from which the man will be redeemed?

    Would that by necessity require free will from the created man in the image of his creator?
     
  18. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    The passage isn't about whether a person who DOES have some ability refuses to use the ability. It is WHY that person has no ability.

    Your illustration is formed inaccurately when you make that application. The folks have the ability to go to church, certainly. WHY don't they go? The nature of the unbeliever has no desire, no need, no motive because they are condemned already.

    Paul showed the Non-cal thinking, that humankind have some innate desire to seek God, is false.

    Paul showed that the unbeliever has absolutely no connection with God nor has any motive, desire, or need of God.

    Just as John states the darkness shuns the light, has no comprehension of the light, and desires the darkness because the deeds are evil and do not want the evil of the deeds to be exposed.

    Winman,

    The inability of the unbeliever comes from the estate of that one being "condemned already." (John 3)

    Judgment has already been pronounced.

    That person has no innate ability of their own free will to refuse or refute that condemnation.

    This is one of the problems with the non-cal.

    They do not essentially view the unbeliever as "condemned already" but that a person has some "emptiness that only god can fill," or "taking a step toward god," or "seeking god," ...

    God has pronounced condemnation upon all unbelievers - already.

    The sentence has been pronounced.

    Only Christ can stay the execution (holder of the keys of life and death, heaven and hell), and only the Father can decree a acquittal based upon the pardon Christ has presented.

    These are legal terms, but important to the discussion.

    Christ pardons - that is He recognizes the exceeding sinfulness of sin and has declared the penalty satisfied (there is therefore NO condemnation...)

    The Father acquits - that is He sees the believer as sinless - joint heirs with Christ presented with no spot or wrinkle.

    There is absolutely no construct of the non-cal scheme(s) that are Scriptural.
     
    #38 agedman, Jan 1, 2014
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  19. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    You will find that Paul's statements are general statements, because there are indeed men who sought God in the Bible.

    2 Chr 19:3 Nevertheless there are good things found in thee, in that thou hast taken away the groves out of the land, and hast prepared thine heart to seek God.

    This verse contradicts everything you just said, it shows King Jehoshaphat had some good in him, and that he prepared his heart to seek God.

    This is the problem when you cherry-pick only some scriptures and build a doctrine around it, completely ignoring many other scriptures that contradict it.
     
  20. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Do you not remember:

    "The king’s heart is like channels of water in the hand of the Lord;
    He turns it wherever He wishes."
    The verse you give is taken from a REBUKE given by Jehu:
    Then Jehoshaphat the king of Judah returned in safety to his house in Jerusalem. 2 Jehu the son of Hanani the seer went out to meet him and said to King Jehoshaphat, “Should you help the wicked and love those who hate the Lord and so bring wrath on yourself from the Lord? 3 But there is some good in you, for you have removed the Asheroth from the land and you have set your heart to seek God.”
    What makes you think that Jehoshaphat did not have the Lord turning his heart "wherever He wishes?"
     
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