omit...or, ADD?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by robycop3, Feb 11, 2004.

  1. robycop3

    robycop3
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    Bro. Tim Bynum asks the very sensible question:

    "Where did Westcott and Hort get the authority to OMIT 1st John 5:7&13 or Acts 8:37 ???"

    So we must give a very sensible answer, and to BTB, that should come only from the KJV. So here ya go-

    Deuteronomy 4:2, KJV
    Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

    Deuteronomy 12:32, KJV
    What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.

    Proverbs 30:6
    Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.

    Revelation 22:18
    For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

    W&H were obeying these instructions form God. If certain material wasn't in the mss they were compiling, then they weren't gonna ADD them.


    Jesus said,"But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking."(Matthew 6:7, KJV)

    Just because a ms contains more words, does that make it more valid?

    Most writers are paid by the word. Therefore if the makers of MBVs were in it just for the money, it would be to their advantage(financially) to include as many words as possible in their versions. Could it be( much to the :eek: horror of the KJVOs that the makers of the MVs are more interested in ACCURACY than lucre?

    It appears that Westcott & Hort got the "authority" from Scripture as found in the KJV. They did NOT want to be guilty of ADDING to God's word just because some words "looked more holy". They kept AUTHENTICITY in mind.

    Now, where did the AV translators get the authority to write a new Bible, besides from a human king?
     
  2. Anti-Alexandrian

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    They were following Jehudi's lead;hey,if it's good enough for ol' Jehudi,it's good enough for W&H.


    Observe:

    1)Gen 3:Satan & Eve.

    2)Baalam:Numbers 22:12-13.

    3)Jehudi:Jeremiah 36.

    4)Satan:Luke 4:10.


    omit...or, ADD?


    OMIT!!
     
  3. BrianT

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    So what's going on in Psalm 145:13, Jude 1:25, etc?

    Consistency. What a wonderful concept.
     
  4. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards
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    God forbid! "through Jesus Christ
    or Lord" is in the NIV of Jude 1:25
    and is ripped out of the KJVs.

    OMIT!

    This means that for the KJV-fans
    that Jesus Christ is not Lord anymore?
    I can't do that, i just can't do that.

    [​IMG]
     
  5. robycop3

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    Mr. A.A., care to answer the last sentence of my initial post in this thread?
     
  6. Dr. Bob

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    Excellent question; don't hold your breath!

    BTW, the AV1611 is 85% other versions. It is NOT a "new" translation, just "tweaking" (modern word) the old ones.

    Hey, I didn't say that. Read the preface "To the Readers" and that is what the paedo-baptizing Anglican priests wrote.
     
  7. Anti-Alexandrian

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    No,not really...

    It's a loaded question in the first place...

    One could ask,who gave the authority to the Geneva Bible's translators to "make a new Bible?"

    One could ask the same about the great Bible,or Luther's Bible.

    I could ask:who gave two Papal SPIES the authority to smuggle Popish mss. in the A.V. revision commitie? Who gave them the authority to put the North African-Egyptian mss.of the Dark-Ages and their "bibles"(MATT 7:20) in the hands of the common people in place of the MSS.(and Bibles)of the Reformation??


    I wont "hold my breath" on that one....


    Again:

    OMMISION!
     
  8. Alcott

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    No, the word for that is INHALE.
     
  9. robycop3

    robycop3
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    Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
    Me, initially: Mr. A.A., care to answer the last sentence of my initial post in this thread?

    "No,not really..."

    I didn't think so.

    "It's a loaded question in the first place..."

    Actually, it's pretty straightforward.

    'One could ask,who gave the authority to the Geneva Bible's translators to "make a new Bible?"'

    Or Tyndale, for that matter. But there wasn't an English BV readily available to the common man when the GB was made, while the GB WAS readily available & quite common when the AV was made. It wasn't as if the English were without a Bible.

    "One could ask the same about the great Bible,or Luther's Bible."

    See above.

    "I could ask:who gave two Papal SPIES the authority to smuggle Popish mss. in the A.V. revision commitie? Who gave them the authority to put the North African-Egyptian mss.of the Dark-Ages and their "bibles"(MATT 7:20) in the hands of the common people in place of the MSS.(and Bibles)of the Reformation??"

    Kewl. Ask away after ya answer MY question.


    "I wont "hold my breath" on that one...."

    Didn't ask ya to!


    Again:

    OMMISION!

    PROOF of "omission", please? Just saying "It's in the KJV but not in the NIV" won't do.

    But I WILL go ahead and answer my own question, as I see you're afraid to. Their authority, besides from KJ, came from the ANGLICAN CHURCH. They had already contacted the eventual translators. All they needed was a royal "good to go".

    Was their authority from GOD? Not any more than it was for any other legitimate translators of His word. I know why you chose not to answer my question-you knew I'd say, "Well, they already had a Bible in common use, in contemporary English, priced so that most could afford it, written by a team of eminent scholars who had earlier risked their lives translating God's word into English while the RCC was dominant-the GENEVA BIBLE What was actually wrong with that version, besides the fact that KJ didn't like it?"
     
  10. Anti-Alexandrian

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    Please read the Scripture I gave in my first response;I mean,Scripture SHOULD be enough to settle the subject,but alas, it NEVER is....
     
  11. robycop3

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    Please read the Scripture I gave in my first response;I mean,Scripture SHOULD be enough to settle the subject,but alas, it NEVER is.... </font>[/QUOTE]Sorry, Sir, your attempt at a quarterback has been caught by this linebacker. There's just as much reason to believe it was ADDED to the KJV's sources as there is that the NIV's sources omitted it. Fourth down and a Zip Code to go, deep in your own territory.
     
  12. AV Defender

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    Are you prepared to back that up with Scripture???

    Scripture has been quoted showing beyond a shadow of a doubt that omission is Satan's main goal...
     
  13. tinytim

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    As has scripture been quoted to show that Satan loves to add.
     
  14. robycop3

    robycop3
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    Are you prepared to back that up with Scripture???

    Scripture has been quoted showing beyond a shadow of a doubt that omission is Satan's main goal...
    </font>[/QUOTE]Actually, Scripture says not to subtract from, or ADD TO God's word. Your, and A.A.s responses remind me of:

    CHILD; Why is the sky blue?

    PARENT: Because it aint yellow.

    This is the usual Onlyist spin-they don't know, so they make something up.
     

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