First, is it Biblical? Ps 139:7-12 and Jer 23:23-24 seem to indicate it BY INFERENCE. But it is not stated clearly. It appears multi-presence is affirmed. But not necessarily omni-presence. Second, is it even logical? Doesn't it imply that God is in hell? Doesn't it seem pantheistic in some sense? Third, is it even necessary? I mean, if God resides on his throne and takes up residence in his temple & God knows and sees everything from his locale, does he even need to be everywhere? Couldn't God's omnipresence be better understood as not being everywhere but simply knowing and observing everything and thus communicating it in terms of multiple presences??? Does God know everything b/c he is everywhere observing everything OR is God expressed in multiple locales because he knows everything and observes everything form his place of residence (throne and temple)???