Hello all, I was lurking here and decided to join after reading the thread about pastors and divorce. I saw several things mentioned in the thread that I wanted to comment on. Not about pastors and divorce but about divorce generally. I am divorced. I have not dated once since my divorce five years ago. I do not know if I will ever date again or re-marry but I do not believe I am an adulterer if I do. I should begin by saying that when talking about divorce I believe we should start with Moses and work forward and not start with Paul and work backward (which is what most people seem to do). I also believe the KJV is correct in making a distinction between divorce and putting away; I do not believe divorce and putting away are synonymous: divorce is a legal decree and putting away amounts to "getting separated" and then taking up with someone else. I know the concepts are closely related and often go hand in hand but there is a difference. Am I correct that the Hebrew and Greek words for the terms are also distinct? With that in mind we see in Deuteronomy 24: 1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. Is that the Word of God or not? If it is, then a divorce decree ended a marriage in the sight of God and man. So how do we interpret Jesus' teaching in light of that? I believe if a man puts away his wife and marries another he becomes an adulterer because he did not get a divorce. He married someone else when he was only separated, not divorced. Likewise he commits adultry by marrying a woman who is put away because she did not receive a divorce and is only separated. Also, regarding sexual immorality being grounds for a divorce, Jesus could not have been teaching that sexual immorality was the only reason you could get a divorce because the OT law for adultry was death. Sexual immorality meant you did not have to bother getting a divorce because if the law was executed you were going to be a widower soon and thus free to marry. In light of that, I believe Jesus was teaching that if the death penalty was not executed by those responsible then that would be the only time you were free to re-marry without getting a divorce. The woman at the well was also mentioned. This account is not usually associated with divorce teaching but I think it's a valuable insight. I concede we do not know for sure that she was not widowed five times. But that idea does not seem to fit the context and tone of the passage because she later testified that Jesus told her all that she had ever done. Had she been widowed five times it seems like Jesus would have told her of all the misfortune that had befallen her, not all that she had ever done. I think it seems more likely that she found no favor in the eyes of five men and was divorced. And yet he considered her to be a woman who truly had no husband. A woman with no husband is free to re-marry. Do most people here hold a view of God's perfect will and God's permissive will? I know that divorce is not God's perfect will from the beginning. Jesus made that clear. But God has permitted it since the days of Moses. Physical death was not God's perfect will either. Neither was man leaving the garden. If you disagree with me I have purposed in my heart that I'm going to love you anyway.