I've a question that's been nagging at me for a while. Years ago, Wifey and I attended a baptist church that went through a change of head pastors. One sunday, the new pastor (who was teaching our sunday school class) spoke of the qualifications of a bishop, citing: I Tim 3:2- "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife..." NKJV According to him, what is meant by husband of one wife in the original language means husband of one wife at a time. This verse applies to polygamy. To be divorced and remarried is not a disqualification. We thought this had the appearance of being extrabiblical. Has anyone heard of this before? I've neither the books nor the training to verify his claim, so help is appreciated.