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Only begotten

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by agedman, Dec 1, 2011.

  1. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Acts 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.

    Begotten in this verse is different from John 3:16 only begotten.

    What is the context of the word begotten in Acts 13:33? What is it relative to? Whereas you would say of "only begotten" as being an eternal kind of. How about here, is it time/moment specific in Acts 13:33? Just what day was this?

    What is the contextual meaning of, my Son to I have begotten.

    Did God reproduce himself in the flesh, conceived in the virgin Mary. Did this man child, Jesus, grow into the man Jesus, and die. Was the man Jesus resurrected from the dead by the one who had begotten him as a man child.
    Did this resurrected man ascend to heaven and is seated on the right hand of him who had begotten him. Is he as a resurrected spiritual man seated there as our high priest?


    Heb 5:4,5 And no man taketh this honour unto himself, but he that is called of God, as Aaron. So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.
     
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi Percho, let me try one more time.

    The Greek word "monogenes" found in John 3:16 literally means "one kind" and always refers to a "one of a kind" person,whether a son or daughter or Jesus Himself.

    The Greek word "gennao" means "cause to be born" and is found in Acts 13:33. So the meaning is God caused Jesus to be born of a woman.

    As to the quote, "today I have begotten you" I think it comes from Psalm 2:7. Since to be made a King (and David was made a king by God through His prophet) means, among other things, to be made a "son of God" should be understood to meaning God made David a son when He caused him to become King. In Acts that action of causing a son to be born by God is applied to Christ's resurrection, Jesus becoming the "first born" of many brethren.

    In Hebrews 1:5 the author says God did not say of any angel, but did say of Jesus, today I have begotten you. The idea here is to place Jesus above angels.

    In Hebrews 5:5 the idea is God gave glory to Jesus rather than Jesus giving glory to Himself.
     
  3. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Acts 13:33 God hath in full completed this to us their children, having raised up Jesus, as also in the second Psalm it hath been written, My Son thou art -- I to-day have begotten thee. = I God the Father caused to be born from the dead by resurrection.

    Matt 1:20 And on his thinking of these things, lo, a messenger of the Lord in a dream appeared to him, saying, `Joseph, son of David, thou mayest not fear to receive Mary thy wife, for that which in her was begotten of the Holy Spirit, = Caused to be born of woman by God

    In the birth of Matt 1:20,25 was he born of corruptible flesh yet by resurrection his flesh neither saw corruption nor was no more to return to corruption?

    Did the following verse apply to Jesus, the son of man, the only begotten son of God?

    1 Cor. 15:53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal put on immortality. Or this 1 Cor. 15:46 Howbeit that not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. And afterward meaning after the resurrection.

    Did that which had been born of the flesh have to be also born of the Spirit?

    R8:11 But if the Spirit of him (God the Father) that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he (God the Father) that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwells in you. 2C4:14 Knowing that he (God the Father) which raised up the Lord Jesus shall raise up us also by Jesus, and shall present with you. 1C15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.

    Does that word present from 2 Cor 4:14 have the same meaning as delivered up the kingdom to God in verse 24 of 1 Cor 15 that follows 23 above?

    1C15:24 Then the end, when he (Jesus) shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

    The dead in Christ.

    1Thess4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him (Jesus). [By resurrection into the kingdom of God.]

    Is this not what we see in Isa 66:8 Shall the earth be made to bring forth in one day? Shall a nation be born at once? for as soon as Zion travailed, she brought forth her children.

    Is this not being born as spiritual children of God that can not die anymore neither can they sin anymore?
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Hi Percho, you are asking a lot of tangential questions. I have answered the OP question, i.e. the meaning of "begotten" as used in scripture.

    You asked how 1 Corinthians 15:53-56 applies to Jesus. What do you think and how does it apply to the topic of the thread?

    Jesus was born of a woman with a perishable fleshly body, but His Spirit was the Word, for the Word became flesh. When Jesus walked out of the tomb, His perishable body walked out imperishable, the first-born of many brethren.
     
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