Some here have made it clear that they have a different view from the standard view of original sin. I want to express my view (w/ some a short exegesis of Rom 5) and hear the opposing views. Hopefully, we can have good dialogue on the issue. Simply put, I believe that Adam (as my representative, though the debate is not meant to be federal vs. seminal) sinned and his sin and guilt have been credited to my account as well. Rom. 5:12 is the most explicit and yet the most ambiguous until the context makes it clear that it is referring to imputed sin. Vv. 13-14 make it clear that the issue is imputed sin and not something else. Since sin cannot be imputed without a law, the fact that death reigned from Adam to Moses, implies that there was a law and thus sin could be imputed. THis of course Paul assumes that his readers would recall 2:14-15 previously. VV. 15-18 focus on a contrast between the one act of righteousness and the one act of sin. V. 15 makes it clear that many died through the one man's sin (Adam's original sin). This is contrasted to the one act of righteousness that secures redemption. V. 17 says that death reigned from the one man's sin. This has to refer to more than Adam's death or it would not be much of a reign. Again, his one sin is said to account for the death of the world. Thus. v. 18 speaks of one trespass lead to the condemnation of all men, so the contrast is that Jesus' righteous cross-work leads to life. V. 19 is the clearest of all in my opinion. One man's act of disobedience appointed many to sinners. "Made" is a poor translation. The only other time Paul uses this word was to appoint elders. It is a synonym for imputation. Thus often "made" is used b/c in a practical sense, imputed sin makes one a sinner (not by nature but by virtue of the fact that sin is now on one's account. So one lie and a person becomes a liar. Thus one sin and a person is a sinner). Again the contrast is that Jesus' act of righteousness leads to justification, a judicial declaration where the condemned is declared righteous. It is important to note that v. 19 both focuses on imputation. Sin is imputed from Adam to humanity. Jesus' righteousness is imputed to the saved and thus they are declared righteous. Thus v. 12 is the most explicit since the context restricts its meaning to imputed original sin. Sin entered the world through one man, Adam. The result was that death entered as well. Sin all have Adam's sin, then all have death spread to them. Why? Because they all sinned in/through Adam. The context restricts the last phrase of v. 12 to the implication that Adam's sin was our sin. Ok... what say you?