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Original Sin and its imputation on the human race

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Greektim, Nov 2, 2011.

  1. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    You pull 1 Cor 15:22 out of context. This is speaking of physical death and the resurrection of our physical bodies, that is the theme of this entire chapter. If you were a real scholar you would know this, you misrepresent and misapply scripture.
     
  2. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    I found this article on original sin at Answers in Genesis.org. I thought it might be of interest in this discussion.

    From the article:
    LINK
     
  3. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    What's the difference?
    How are they different?

    Paul is showing the quite literal superiority of Christ's priesthood over Levi's.

    HankD
     
  4. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Not sure what you are asking...what is the diference between literal and figurative?

    Scripture tells us quite literally how we die in Ephesians and James 1. We don't die literally in Adam or figuratively. We die as Adam died, by sinning (James 1:14-15)
     
  5. Cypress

    Cypress New Member

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    Thanks Amy.....good comparisons:love2:
     
  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    I am just saying that since Levi paid tithes to Melkisedek "while in Abrahams loins" it is not simply a figurative thing when it comes to the scriptural evaluation of the superiority of the two priesthoods.

    Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:​

    Past tense from Adam on down to you and I.​

    It would seem that we were there (in God's view) when Adam sinned.​

    When we pass through this life the Holy Spirit convicts us of this fact because we ourselves are slaves to sin.

    We are that way because of Adam.


    HankD​
     
  7. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    I see it as past tense (anyone who can sin has), just not from Adam to us.
    Not sure its wise to explain a text on death and sin using the superiority of a priesthood line.

    The context of that vere is death not sin. If we all died in Adam Ephesians 2 and james 1 are false in describing personal accountability and spiritual death
     
  8. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Hank, let's put it this way, if you have heard this verse and are old enough to understand it, trust me, you have sinned past tense.
     
  9. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    In Adam.

    But yes, I put my present tense stamp of approval on Adam's sin when I myself sinned proving (IMO) that I was a sinner all along.

    But Jesus Christ came into the world to save sinners...

    We can all agree and rejoice in that.


    HankD
     
  10. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    When Isaiah said like sheep we have all gone astray, this is not speaking of Adam's sin, but our own personal sins, yet he also says it in the past tense. Does this mean it does not apply in the present? No, and nobody would make that argument. You only make this argument to support OS.
     
  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    OK. But just to let you know there is no past tense in biblical Hebrew.

    HankD
     
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